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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in her right iliac fossa was discovered during an examination. An ovarian cyst measuring 8 cm x 12 cm is visible on ultrasonography. What is the next management step?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy with excision of the cyst

      Correct Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist

      Explanation:

      Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
      In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.

      Premenopausal women with asymptomatic simple cysts smaller than 8cm on sonograms in whom the CA125 value is within the reference range may be monitored, with a repeat ultrasonographic examination in 8-12 weeks.

      Persistent simple ovarian cysts larger than 5-10 cm, especially if symptomatic, and complex ovarian cysts should be considered for surgical removal.

      For this patient, a premenopausal woman, with an ovarian cyst size 8 cm x 12cm. Surgical management is indicated, hence referral to gynaecologist is appropriate.

      Laparotomy or laparoscopic excision of cyst should be considered and performed by the gynaecologist not general practitioner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on...

    Incorrect

    • An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Nausea and vomiting occurs in about 50% of women given this treatment.

      Correct Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.

      Explanation:

      Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old female presents to her general practitioner. She complains of a three...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents to her general practitioner. She complains of a three month history of amenorrhea, with recently added hot flushes 10 - 12 times a day, irritability and difficulty sleeping. What would be the best management strategy to relieve her symptoms, whilst minimising side effects?

      Your Answer: Continuous therapy with oestrogen and MPA.

      Correct Answer: Continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.

      Explanation:

      The best strategy is to commence cyclical hormone therapy using continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.

      This patient is most likely experiencing menopause, with symptoms caused by her oestrogen deficiency state.

      Diazepam will help her to sleep and possibly alleviate her irritability, but would be unlikely to relieve the hot flushes.

      Continuous therapy with oestrogen and MPA provides continuous progestogen therapy and has a high risk of causing unpredictable breakthrough vaginal bleeding, as it is only three months since the last menstrual period. This treatment is not recommended to be given within 1 – 2 years of the last period.

      Oestrogen alone is not recommended for women who still have their uterus.

      Progestogen alone would only be indicated in cases with contraindications to oestrogen administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of...

    Incorrect

    • With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures. Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?

      Your Answer: Overflow incontinence

      Correct Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.

      Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine

      Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month. These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months. She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period. On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain. Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating. From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: A transverse vaginal septum.

      Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation. Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective symptoms include:
      – Depression.
      – Anger outbursts.
      – Irritability.
      – Anxiety.
      – Confusion.
      – social withdrawal.
      Somatic symptoms include:
      – breast tenderness
      – abdominal bloating
      – headache and swelling of extremities.
      Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
      Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.

      The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms. Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size. A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L). What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?

      Your Answer: Myomectomy

      Correct Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.

      Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
      The following situations call for a hysterectomy:

      Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
      Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.

      Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.

      Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas

      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.

      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.

      Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.

      Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
      In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her examination is normal and she has no complaints. You perform a Papanicolaou (Pap) test, which she has not had done in 15 years. The smear is read as “negative for intraepithelial lesion and malignancy, benign endometrial cells present.” What would be the most appropriate follow-up for this finding?

      Your Answer: An endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient should have an endometrial biopsy (SOR C). Approximately 7% of postmenopausal women with benign endometrial cells on a Papanicolaou smear will have significant endometrial pathology. None of the other options listed evaluate the endometrium for pathology. An asymptomatic premenopausal woman with benign endometrial cells would not need an endometrial evaluation because underlying endometrial pathology is rare in this group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow. Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: The desire to preserve fertility

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell. Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods. She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today. On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination. There is no evidence of a pelvic mass. Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina. From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Curettage after twelve hours of antibiotic therapy.

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of anus

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend. She got severe diarrhoea and vomiting after eating a hamburger at a local eatery while on the road. She has taken her pills as prescribed. What is your contraception advice?

      Your Answer: Use barrier method until diarrhoea settles

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for 7 days and continue usual pills

      Explanation:

      The CDC recommends that:
      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours Use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer: Relaxation therapy

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever. With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal. Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Correct

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period. Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal. What is her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.

      Explanation:

      Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.

      Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.

      It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three days, she has been suffering from dyspareunia and difficulty walking. She claims she has never had any sexually transmitted illnesses before. Her companion has no symptoms. She is afebrile and in good health. On pelvic examination, a red, heated swelling measuring 4cm in diameter is discovered in the posterior end of the right labia majora. A speculum examination reveals normal-looking mucosa with no obvious discharge. There is no lymphadenopathy in the region. Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Marsupialization

      Correct Answer: Word catheter

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Bartholin cyst abscess.
      Insertion of an inflatable balloon is a non-surgical procedure that can be performed as an outpatient using a local anaesthetic (LA) injection to numb the area. It involves making a passage from the cyst or abscess through which the pus can drain over 4 weeks. After the LA injection, a small skin cut is made into the cyst or abscess, which allows drainage. A fluid/ pus swab sample may be taken to check for an infection at this stage. A cotton bud is used to break the pockets of abscess/ cyst fluid. A flexible tube (called a Word catheter) with a small, specially designed balloon at its tip is then inserted into the cyst or abscess to create a passage. The balloon is inflated with 3–4mls of sterile fluid to keep the catheter in place. Rarely, a stitch may be used to partly close the cut and hold the balloon in position. It is then left in place for up to 4 weeks; new skin to forms around the passage and the wound heals.

      Marsupialization can be done for drainage but is inferior or word catheter because of the technical challenges and complications. Hot compressions and analgesics alone do not suffice in the presence of an abscess. Antibiotics are given after drainage but are not effective alone when there is a large collection of pus.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice....

    Incorrect

    • A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice. She is a cigarette smoker. What would your advice be?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pills

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

      Progestin only pills are the safest and most effective contraceptive methods than the rest of the options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/75. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Worsening hypertension

      Explanation:

      Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.

      COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy. Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to...

    Correct

    • After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills. Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?

      Your Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days

      Explanation:

      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.

      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen.

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed...

    Correct

    • Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed below have been linked to obesity in children. Select the syndrome with which the other clinical symptoms in this patient are most likely to be linked.

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts. The name polycystic ovary syndrome describes the numerous small cysts (fluid-filled sacs) that form in the ovaries. However, some women with this disorder do not have cysts, while some women without the disorder do develop cysts.

      The symptoms of PCOS may include:
      – Missed periods, irregular periods, or very light periods
      – Ovaries that are large or have many cysts
      – Excess body hair, including the chest, stomach, and back (hirsutism)
      – Weight gain, especially around the belly (abdomen)
      – Acne or oily skin
      – Male-pattern baldness or thinning hair
      – Infertility
      – Small pieces of excess skin on the neck or armpits (skin tags)
      – Dark or thick skin patches on the back of the neck, in the armpits, and under the breasts

      The so-called Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a fairly rare condition characterized by six cardinal signs, namely obesity, atypical retinitis pigmentosa, mental deficiency, genital dystrophy, polydactylism and familial occurrence.

      Froehlich syndrome is characterized by increased or excessive eating that leads to obesity, small testes, and a delay in the onset of puberty. It is also common for children with Froehlich syndrome to experience the delay in physical growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder that occurs when your body makes too much of the hormone cortisol over a long period of time. Cortisol is sometimes called the “stress hormone” because it helps your body respond to stress. Cortisol also helps. maintain blood pressure. regulate blood glucose, also called blood sugar.

      Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by short stature, a round face, short neck, and shortened bones in the hands and feet. Intelligence usually ranges from low normal to mentally retarded. Headaches, weakness, tiring easily, lethargy, cataracts and blurred vision or hypersensitivity to light may also be present.
      This patient’s condition can only be explained by PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Low socioeconomic status

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Consuming alcohol and risk of cervical cancer are not associated. Not even drinking often and in large amounts are risk factors for developing cervical cancer.

      So drinking alcohol and risk of cervical cancer aren’t associated. Based on their analyses of the scientific research evidence, that is the conclusion of, among many others, the:
      American Cancer Society.
      Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
      National Cancer Institute.
      UK’s National Health Service.
      Canadian Cancer Society.
      Cancer Council Australia.
      World Health Organization (WHO).

      All other options can increase the risk of acquiring cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 53 year old female presents with hot flushes and night sweats. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old female presents with hot flushes and night sweats. Her last menstrual period was last year. She had MI recently. Choose the most appropriate management for this patient.

      Your Answer: COCP

      Correct Answer: Clonidine

      Explanation:

      With a history of MI, oestrogen and COCP should be avoided. Evening primrose is also not suitable for post-menopausal symptoms. Raloxifene is a SERM – these make hot flushes worse. Clonidine will help improve the hot flushes and the vasomotor symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative. Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future. Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer: Progestin-only pills (POP)

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (11/30) 37%
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