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  • Question 1 - A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh. He also complains of joint discomfort and fatigue. Lyme disease is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to confirm this diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate laboratory test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi titre

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lyme Disease: Understanding the Results

      Lyme disease is a common illness caused by the spirochaete B. burgdorferi, transmitted to humans via tick bites. Serologic testing is the most frequently used diagnostic tool, but false positives and negatives are common. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the first step, followed by a western blot if necessary. However, serologic results cannot distinguish active from inactive disease. Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor test results are negative in B. burgdorferi infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated but is not specific to detect infection. Culture of joint fluids can rule out gout and pseudogout, but detection of B. burgdorferi DNA in synovial fluid is not reliable. Blood cultures are impractical. Understanding the limitations of these tests is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
    What is the recommended first line...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
      What is the recommended first line treatment for constipation in children?

      Your Answer: Macrogol (Movicol)

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Constipation in Children: Macrogol (Movicol)

      When a child is diagnosed with constipation and secondary causes have been ruled out, treatment can be initiated. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is macrogol, which is available as Movicol Paediatric Plain or Movicol depending on the child’s age. The dose is escalated until regular and good consistency stools are achieved. However, it is important to check for faecal impaction before starting maintenance treatment. Suppositories and enemas should not be routinely used in primary care. If macrogol is not tolerated or if there is a particularly hard stool, a stool softener such as lactulose can be used. A stimulant laxative such as senna can also be used as an alternative to macrogol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Flupentixol

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.9
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  • Question 4 - Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder?

      Your Answer: Non ulcer-dyspepsia

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Association between H. pylori Infection and Gastric Diseases

      H. pylori infection is a common bacterial infection that affects approximately 50% of the global population. While it is primarily associated with peptic ulcer disease, it can also lead to other gastric diseases. Gastric malignancies, for instance, are often caused by chronic inflammation of MALT from H. pylori infection. MALTomas, which are extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphomas, are the most common type of gastric lymphoma and are associated with H. pylori infection in over 90% of cases.

      However, not all gastric diseases are associated with H. pylori infection. Coeliac disease, for example, is an autoimmune disorder related to gluten sensitivity. Non-ulcer dyspepsia, a group of upper gastrointestinal symptoms, is not generally associated with H. pylori infection. Reflux oesophagitis, a condition caused by the failure of relaxation of the lower end of the oesophagus, is also not associated with H. pylori infection.

      It is important to note that the development of gastric malignancies from H. pylori infection is a slow process that may stop at any step. The disease process starts with chronic gastritis, followed by atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually gastric malignancy (Correa’s cascade). However, other factors are also required for gastric cancers to develop, not just H. pylori infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the association between H. pylori infection and gastric diseases is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions. While H. pylori infection is a common cause of gastric malignancies, it is not associated with all gastric diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      31.2
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  • Question 5 - For what has the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended...

    Incorrect

    • For what has the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended the use of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation (cigarettes)

      Explanation:

      The Use of Varenicline in Smoking Cessation and Other Substance Withdrawals

      Varenicline, marketed as Champix®, is a medication used in combination with motivational support to aid smoking cessation. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends offering varenicline or nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) to all smokers, along with advice and encouragement to quit. The choice of therapy depends on factors such as the smoker’s compliance, availability of counseling and support, previous experience with cessation aids, contraindications, and personal preference. However, varenicline use has been associated with changes in behavior and thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, depression, and suicidal ideation, so monitoring is advised.

      While varenicline is not currently indicated for cannabis cessation, some studies suggest that it may reduce the enjoyment reported from using cannabis, which could lead to further investigation in this area. However, varenicline has no role in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal, and the FDA has warned that people taking varenicline should reduce their alcohol intake due to the potential for unusual behavior, including aggression. The use of varenicline for opioid withdrawal in patients with chronic pain is also under investigation but is not currently recommended. Finally, varenicline is not indicated for cocaine cessation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide

      Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.

      Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.

      Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.

      Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.

      A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.

      Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.

      Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who reports that he has been feeling tired and has developed mouth sores. Additionally, he has bruises on his knees and palms. A bone marrow aspirate reveals a hypocellular image.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypocellular Bone Marrow and Thrombocytopenia

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by bone marrow failure, resulting in peripheral pancytopenia and bone-marrow hypoplasia. This leads to a deficiency in the production of red blood cells, causing anaemia, and a reduced production of white blood cells, leading to immunodeficiency. Patients may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, lethargy, pallor, mouth ulcers, and increased frequency of infections. The reduced production of platelets causes easy bruising.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition characterized by an isolated reduction in platelets with normal bone marrow, in the absence of another identifiable cause. Patients may present with abnormal bleeding and bruising, petechiae, and purpura.

      Haemophilia A is an X-linked-recessive condition causing a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, leading to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding after injury, or spontaneous bleeding in severe cases.

      Infectious mononucleosis is the result of Epstein–Barr virus infection, characterized by fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and a macular or maculopapular rash.

      Autoimmune neutropenia is associated with opportunistic infections, most commonly otitis media. However, this condition would not account for the thrombocytopenia observed in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption of shellfish at a Chinese eatery. What is the most suitable course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.5ml of 1 in 1,000

      Explanation:

      The recommended adult dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 500 mcg, which is equivalent to 0.5 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
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