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Question 1
Correct
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A nine-year-old tumbles from the climbing equipment at the park and is taken to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a supracondylar fracture of the left distal humerus. During the examination, the child exhibits weakened finger flexion in the left hand, inability to perform opposition of the left thumb and little finger, and altered sensation over the lateral aspect of the palm and first three digits. Can you identify the location of the damaged structure in the antecubital fossa?
Your Answer: Medial to the brachial artery
Explanation:The cubital fossa contains the following structures in order from lateral to medial: radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve. In this case, the damaged nerve is the median nerve, which is located most medially in the cubital fossa, next to the brachial artery.
In the antecubital fossa, the radial nerve is located deep and laterally, next to the biceps tendon. The biceps tendon serves as a marker for finding the brachial artery, which is located medially to it.
It is incorrect to say that there is a nerve located between the biceps tendon and the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa.
The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.
There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.
The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents with a severe spreading sepsis in his hand. During surgical exploration of the palm, the flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is mobilized to aid in drainage of the infection. Which of the following structures is not in close proximity to this muscle?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The flexor digiti minimi brevis originates from the Hamate and is located beneath the ulnar contribution to the superficial palmar arterial arch and digital nerves. The median nerve is positioned over the flexor tendons.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain, along with continuous nausea and vomiting. She had visited the emergency department a week ago due to severe bloody diarrhea and was hospitalized for a day before being released.
Her amylase levels are elevated.
Which medication is the most probable cause of her current symptoms?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Azathioprine is known to cause pancreatitis, which is likely the adverse effect experienced by this patient. It is possible that the patient was prescribed azathioprine after presenting with severe bloody diarrhea, a symptom of an acute flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Other drugs listed are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, although erythromycin may have a weak association. For more information on serious adverse effects of the listed drugs, please refer to the table below.
Drug Serious adverse effects
Paracetamol Hepatotoxicity
Amitriptyline Anticholinergic side effects
Erythromycin GI disturbance and prolongs QT interval
Azathioprine Bone marrow depression and pancreatitisAzathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true?
Your Answer: Plain radiographs may be normal in the early stages
Correct Answer: Should be treated by aggressive surgical debridement initially
Explanation:The initial management involves medical treatment with an antistaphylococcal antibiotic, as opposed to septic joints where prompt joint washout is necessary.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man falls and suffers a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle. What is the vessel that is most vulnerable to injury?
Your Answer: Subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Subclavian vein
Explanation:The subclavian vein is situated at the back of the subclavius muscle and the medial portion of the clavicle. It is positioned below and in front of the third segment of the subclavian artery, resting on the first rib, and then on scalenus anterior, which separates it from the second segment of the artery at the back.
Anatomy of the Clavicle
The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.
The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.
In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Correct
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An 84-year-old woman falls at home and presents to the emergency department four days later after being referred by her GP. She reports experiencing continuous, agonizing pain since the fall. Despite being able to weight bear, there is no positional deformity of the limb. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incomplete neck of femur fracture
Explanation:Patients who have non-displaced or incomplete fractures of the neck of the femur may be able to bear weight.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.
Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with left leg pain and is unable to bear weight. Upon examination, her left leg is shortened and externally rotated. An x-ray is conducted in the emergency department, revealing an intracapsular fracture of the left neck of femur. The medical team reviews the imaging and expresses concern about osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
Which artery's damage is the most concerning in this case?Your Answer: Femoral artery
Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is the primary supplier of blood to the femoral head. This artery wraps around the back of the femur to provide blood to the neck and head of the femur. In cases of femoral neck fractures, damage to this artery can occur, leading to a disruption of blood supply and resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
The deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris, is a branch of the femoral artery that supplies the deep tissues of the thigh. It branches into the lateral and medial femoral circumflex arteries and the perforating arteries, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The femoral artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the lower limb, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The lateral femoral circumflex artery wraps around the front and side of the femur to supply the femoral neck and musculature on the lateral aspect of the thigh. While it does provide some blood supply to the femoral head, it is not the primary supplier and is therefore not the correct answer.
The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus and supplies the knee, lower leg, and foot. It is not directly involved in the blood supply to the femoral head and is therefore not the correct answer.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.
What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity
Explanation:Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith presents to the clinic with a newly noticed lesion on her leg. Upon examination, concerning characteristics of malignancy are observed.
What signs would be most indicative of an in situ malignant melanoma in Mrs. Smith, who is in her early 50s?Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Having multiple colours
Explanation:When assessing a pigmented lesion, it is important to consider the ‘ABCDE’ criteria: Asymmetry, Border, Colour, Diameter, and Evolution. The British Association of Dermatologists (BAD) provides guidance on this assessment. According to BAD, a diameter of over 6mm is more indicative of a melanoma than a diameter of 4mm. A lesion’s color alone does not determine malignancy, as highly pigmented lesions can be benign. Rolled edges are more commonly associated with basal cell carcinoma than melanoma. However, the presence of multiple colors within a lesion, including different shades of black, brown, and pink, is a significant indicator of melanoma.
Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. There are three main types of skin cancer: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include sun exposure, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.
Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. It can be classified into three main types: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include exposure to the sun, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Correct
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Emma, a 26-year-old with ulcerative colitis attends for a routine clinic appointment. Her symptoms are now well-controlled on her current treatment. Her medication includes: azathioprine, citalopram, loperamide hydrochloride, paracetamol, salbutamol and a beclometasone dipropionate inhaler.
You check her most recent blood tests and find the following results:
Hb 98 g/l
MCV 90 fl
Platelets 124 x 109/l
WBC 2.8 x 109/l
CRP <5 mg/l
Which medication is most likely to have contributed to these blood results?Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Regular monitoring of a patient’s full blood count is important when taking Azathioprine, as it is an immunosuppressant drug that may cause myelosuppression. Patients should also be educated on signs of infection to watch out for. However, Citalopram, paracetamol, and salbutamol are not known to cause myelosuppression. Although beclometasone dipropionate is a steroid, the small and localized dose in an inhaler makes it highly unlikely to have contributed to the patient’s myelosuppression.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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As a medical student on placement with a surgical team, you come across a patient who has developed foot drop in their right leg after surgery. You notice that the patient is dragging their right foot and experiencing weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of their foot, as well as an inability to extend their toes. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the operation?
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Correct Answer: Common fibular nerve
Explanation:The common fibular nerve starts at the top of the popliteal fossa, passing medial to the biceps femoris and then crossing over the head of the gastrocnemius. It provides an articular branch to the knee before winding around the neck and passing under the Fibularis longus. At this point, it divides into superficial and deep branches. In the popliteal fossa, it also divides to give the lateral sural cutaneous nerve, which joins with a branch from the tibial nerve to form the sural nerve. If the nerve is damaged, it can result in foot drop, which can occur due to prolonged pressure on the nerve during an operation or other causes. Motor loss of other nerves, such as the tibial, sciatic, inferior gluteal, or femoral nerves, can result in weakness in other muscles.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Correct
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From which of the following structures does the posterior cruciate ligament originate?
Your Answer: Anterior intercondylar area of tibia
Explanation:The attachment point of the anterior cruciate ligament is the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia. From there, it extends in a posterolateral direction and inserts into the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.
The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein?
Your Answer: Digastric muscle
Correct Answer: Anterior scalene muscle
Explanation:The subclavian vein (anterior) and subclavian artery (posterior) are separated by the significant anatomical feature known as the anterior scalene muscle.
The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.
The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.
In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of frequent bruising. During the physical examination, an early-diastolic murmur is heard over the aortic region. The patient's skin is found to be highly elastic, and his joints exhibit greater extension than normal. Genetic testing is recommended, which confirms the suspected diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Which collagen type is predominantly affected by this condition?
Your Answer: Collagen type 1
Correct Answer: Collagen type 3
Explanation:The main cause of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a genetic defect in collagen type III, although a less common variant also affects collagen type V. Osteogenesis imperfecta is primarily caused by a defect in collagen type I, while Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with a defect in collagen type IV.
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her outstretched hand during a volleyball game. She reports experiencing pain in her left shoulder.
After assessing her neurovascular status, the attending physician orders an x-ray which reveals a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus.
Which muscles are expected to have decreased movement based on the nerve most likely affected by this fracture?Your Answer: Teres minor and trapezius
Correct Answer: Teres minor and deltoid
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles. It is composed of nerve fibers from C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus and originates in the axilla. The nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space, located at the lower border of the subscapularis muscle. It then travels medially to the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable to injury in cases of surgical neck fractures. Other muscles innervated by the axillary nerve include the teres major and trapezius, which are supplied by the lower subscapular and accessory nerves, respectively.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?
Your Answer: Infraspinatus
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:Most rotator cuff muscles insert into the greater tuberosity, except for subscapularis which inserts into the lesser tuberosity.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the position of the hyoid bone?
Your Answer: C3
Explanation:Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels
The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.
Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Correct
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A 76-year-old man is experiencing symptoms suggestive of intermittent claudication. You plan to evaluate the extent of his condition by measuring his ankle brachial pressure index. In order to do so, you need to locate the dorsalis pedis artery. Which of the following statements regarding this artery is incorrect?
Your Answer: It originates from the peroneal artery
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery continues directly into the dorsalis pedis artery.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius?
Your Answer: Biceps
Correct Answer: Brachialis
Explanation:The ulna serves as the insertion point for the brachialis muscle, while the remaining muscles are inserted onto the radius.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The surgical procedure begins with a 5cm incision at McBurney's point. What is the first structure that will be encountered during the dissection?
Your Answer: Rectus sheath
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The rectus sheath is located more medially than the external oblique, which is encountered first. The external oblique muscle is the most superficial muscle of the abdominal wall and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs. It inserts into the linea alba, pubic tubercle, and anterior half of the iliac crest by passing inferomedially. The muscle is innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves (T7-T11) and subcostal nerves.
Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall
The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.
The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.
During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents after a car accident. He has a posterior dislocation of his right knee but is in stable condition. During a neurological examination of his lower limbs, it is observed that he has a lack of plantarflexion and inversion in his right foot. Which nerve is likely affected?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve is responsible for allowing a patient to plantarflex and invert their foot. Although it is rare for this nerve to be injured due to its location deep within soft tissue, it can be damaged in cases of posterior knee dislocations. When the tibial nerve is affected, the patient will experience a loss of these specific movements.
The common fibular nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve controls muscles in the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower limb, allowing for foot eversion and dorsiflexion. Therefore, if this nerve is damaged, the patient will experience the opposite symptoms of what is described in the scenario.
Similarly, the common peroneal nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is responsible for foot drop, which is a loss of foot dorsiflexion and eversion. This is the opposite of what the patient in the scenario is experiencing. While it is possible for this nerve to be injured in a posterior knee dislocation, it is more commonly affected in cases of fibular neck fractures.
The femoral nerve is also not the correct answer. This nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, but it is not involved in foot movements. Additionally, the course of this nerve does not extend past the knee, so it cannot be damaged by a posterior knee dislocation.
Finally, the obturator nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is located higher up in the limb and controls thigh adduction. Its course does not extend distally beyond the femoral head, so it cannot be affected by popliteal pathology.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of pain in her right hip and thigh after falling from her bed. According to her, she fell while attempting to get up and go to the bathroom during the night. During the physical examination, the physician observed that her right leg was externally rotated and shorter than her left leg. What is the most probable pathological alteration present in this woman?
Your Answer: Cortical bone overgrowth and sclerosis due to defective osteoclasts
Correct Answer: Decreased cortical and trabecular bone mass with normal bone mineralization
Explanation:The patient’s shortened and externally rotated right leg indicated a fracture of the neck of the femur, which was determined to be a fragility fracture due to osteoporosis. This condition is a common cause of fragility fractures in postmenopausal women, as decreased estrogen levels lead to increased bone resorption and decreased bone mass. Other bone-related conditions, such as osteopetrosis, osteomalacia, Paget disease of the bone, and osteosarcoma, have different underlying causes and presentations.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?
Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase
Correct Answer: Desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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During a block dissection of the thigh, the sartorius muscle is identified. What is the nerve supply to this muscle?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Anterior division of the femoral nerve
Explanation:The superficial femoral nerve primarily provides cutaneous branches, but it also innervates the sartorius muscle.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of the humerus?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Fractures involving the shaft can compromise the radial nerve, which is located in this groove.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pins and needles in her right hand, which worsen at night and improve when she hangs her hand over the bed's edge. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism. On examination, there is atrophy of the thenar aspect of her right hand, and Tinel's test is positive on the right side only. Despite conservative management, the patient returns to the practice with no improvement in symptoms and is referred for surgery. What is the surgical procedure that can alleviate this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Cubital retinaculum
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome involves dividing the flexor retinaculum, which is the structure spanning the anteromedial surface of the ulna and the distal interphalangeal joints of the phalanges. This procedure is indicated by symptoms such as thenar wasting and a positive Tinel’s test. It is important to note that the cubital retinaculum, Osborne’s ligament, palmar aponeurosis, and pisometacarpal ligament are not involved in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol by a junior doctor and sent home. After a few months, he returns with persistent pain and discomfort in the hip. The doctors suspect avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?
Your Answer: Non union of the fracture
Correct Answer: Apoptosis of osteoblasts
Explanation:Necrotic cell death does not involve apoptosis. Instead, the body typically attempts to repair the damage by promoting angiogenesis and the proliferation of fibroblasts. These cells may even differentiate into osteoblasts, which can then lay down new matrix.
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, resulting in bone destruction and joint dysfunction. This commonly affects the femur’s epiphysis, which is a long bone. The causes of AVN include long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma. Initially, AVN may not show any symptoms, but pain in the affected joint may develop over time. Plain x-rays may not show any abnormalities at first, but osteopenia and microfractures may be visible early on. The crescent sign may appear due to the collapse of the articular surface. MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. Joint replacement may be necessary for management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a gradually worsening rash on his face that has been present for the past 2 months. The patient has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. During the examination, the doctor notes the presence of numerous papules, pustules, and comedones on the patient's forehead, cheeks, and chin. What is the responsible pathogen for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Propionibacterium acnes is the bacteria responsible for contributing to the formation of acne.
The patient’s facial papules, pustules, and comedones indicate a diagnosis of acne vulgaris, which is more prevalent in adolescents and those with oily skin. While bacteria can play a role in the development of acne, it is important to note that acne vulgaris is not a contagious rash. Propionibacterium acnes is the most common pathogen associated with acne vulgaris, as it triggers enzymes and inflammatory mediators that worsen the existing rash and inflammation.
Staphylococcus aureus is linked to bacterial skin conditions like impetigo and cellulitis, which often require more intensive antibiotic treatment.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a commensal bacterium typically found on the skin’s surface. It may cause opportunistic bacterial skin infections in immunocompromised patients, but it is not involved in acne development.
Streptococcus pyogenes also causes bacterial skin infections like cellulitis and erysipelas, similar to Staphylococcus aureus. If either bacterium were implicated in acne vulgaris, it would cause significant inflammation and infection (e.g., fever, erythema, swelling). However, they do not play a role in the normal development of acne.
Understanding Acne Vulgaris
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects teenagers, with around 80-90% of them experiencing it. It commonly appears on the face, neck, and upper trunk and is characterized by the blockage of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. However, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old still being affected.
The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial. It involves the overgrowth of skin cells in hair follicles, leading to the formation of keratin plugs that obstruct the follicles. Although androgen levels may control the activity of sebaceous glands, which produce oil, they are often normal in patients with acne. Additionally, the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes can colonize the blocked follicles, leading to inflammation and the formation of pimples.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is crucial in developing effective treatments for this common skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with elbow pain after falling onto his outstretched hand at work. The fall occurred with his elbow fully extended. An x-ray confirms a fracture of his medial epicondyle.
During the examination, the patient reports reduced sensation on the medial side of his palm and some weakness in his wrist. Based on the nerve likely affected, what muscle may also exhibit weakness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. If there is an injury to the medial epicondyle, it may result in damage to the ulnar nerve, which runs posterior to the medial epicondyle. This nerve injury would cause sensory loss in the medial portion of the hand. The ulnar nerve supplies intrinsic muscles of the hand, hypothenar muscles, and the flexor carpi ulnaris, which aids in wrist flexion and adduction.
Coracobrachialis is an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and aids in arm flexion at the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is rarely injured in isolation.
Extensor carpi ulnaris is also an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the radial nerve and controls wrist extension and adduction. Mid-shift fractures of the humerus may damage the radial nerve.
Flexor carpi radialis is another incorrect answer. It is innervated by the median nerve and controls wrist flexion and abduction.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to her doctor with a complaint of foot pain for the past week. The pain is located on the bottom of her heel and is most severe in the morning and after prolonged periods of sitting at her desk. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis
Explanation:Understanding Plantar Fasciitis
Plantar fasciitis is a prevalent condition that causes heel pain in adults. The pain is typically more severe around the medial calcaneal tuberosity. To manage this condition, it is essential to rest the feet as much as possible. Wearing shoes with good arch support and cushioned heels can also help alleviate the pain. Additionally, insoles and heel pads may be useful in providing extra support and cushioning to the feet. By taking these steps, individuals with plantar fasciitis can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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