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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.
On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.
Investigations showed:
- Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
- White cell Count 11 ×109/L (3.5-10)
- Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-450)
- ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)
Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.
One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As a locum GP, you have a pregnant patient who denies symptoms or urinary tract infection. What urinalysis results might be expected for patients A, B, C, D, and E?
Patient A:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: +++
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: +
Patient B:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: ++
- Leucocytes: ++
Patient C:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: +++
- Leucocytes: +++
Patient D:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: Negative
Patient E:
- Haemoglobin: +++
- Urobilinogen: +
- Bilirubin: +
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: NegativeYour Answer: D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:Urinalysis in Pregnancy: Common Abnormalities and Importance of Monitoring
Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool for detecting renal diseases and other medical conditions. During pregnancy, even asymptomatic women may exhibit abnormalities on urinalysis. These abnormalities include small amounts of glucose, increased protein loss associated with pre-eclampsia, and the presence of ketones only during fasting. Pregnant women are also prone to sterile pyuria and non-specific changes in leukocytes.
Monitoring for urinary infections is particularly important during pregnancy, as it has been linked to premature labor. However, minor and non-specific changes on urinalysis can sometimes falsely reassure clinicians. Pregnant women are at a higher risk of UTIs due to their immunosuppressed state, and may present with atypical symptoms or unusual urinalysis features. Therefore, urine should be sent for culture if there are any concerns.
In summary, urinalysis is an essential tool for monitoring the health of pregnant women. the common abnormalities associated with pregnancy and the importance of monitoring for urinary infections can help clinicians provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who leads an active lifestyle visits her doctor for a routine work-related health check-up. During the check-up, her urinalysis shows a positive result for protein (+) and a 24-hour urine collection is ordered. The results reveal a urine protein level of 25 mg/24 hours. What recommendations should be provided to the patient?
Your Answer: He should start a low protein diet
Correct Answer: This result is within normal limits
Explanation:Proteinuria and its Significance in Patient Assessment
Proteinuria is a condition where protein is present in the urine, which can be an indicator of kidney disease or other underlying health issues. When assessing a patient with suspected proteinuria, it is important to consider their age, activity levels, and the presence of diseases such as diabetes.
Urine albumin levels of 30-300 mg/24 hours are considered microalbuminuria, which is a marker of cardiovascular risk and can predict chronic kidney disease, especially in patients with diabetes. This is usually estimated using the albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), where an ACR of >3.5 mg/mmol in women or >2.5 mg/mmol in men is considered abnormal. Albuminuria is defined as >300 mg/24 hours or an ACR of >30 mg/mmol.
In some patients, particularly young adults, low-level proteinuria (140 mg – 1 g /24 hours) can be normal and may be caused by factors such as exercise, postural changes, or a high protein diet. However, urine microscopy should be done to exclude casts or cells. Proteinuria levels of 1-2 g/24 hours are more concerning and can be a sign of developing kidney disease such as glomerulonephritis.
If proteinuria levels exceed 3 g/24 hours, it is diagnostic of nephrotic syndrome and requires admission to the hospital for further investigation and management. Some authorities use a cut-off of 3.5 g/24 hours in this case. the significance of proteinuria levels is crucial in patient assessment and can aid in the early detection and management of kidney disease and other underlying health issues.
Overall, proteinuria levels should be carefully monitored and evaluated in the context of the patient’s overall health and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked to assess a potential kidney donor. The patient is an 86-year-old man who has been in the ICU for ten days due to severe pneumonia. He has required ventilatory support, inotropes, and filtration during his stay. His creatinine levels have rapidly risen since admission, with a current level of 350 umol/l. However, a sample taken six months ago by his GP showed a creatinine level of 95 umol/l. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and a malignant melanoma that was treated to remission three years ago with a hemicolectomy, but no adjuvant therapy was required. His screening colonoscopies have been normal in the years since.
What factor would lead you to decide against this patient as a potential donor?Your Answer: Creatinine on admission
Correct Answer: History of malignancy
Explanation:Donor Evaluation for Organ Transplantation
This patient’s stay in the ICU has been complicated, but the only absolute contraindication to organ donation is malignancy. Although the patient had a limited malignancy without evidence of spread, the risk of cancer in the recipient is too high due to potential micrometastases and immunosuppression. The only other absolute contraindications are HIV or CJD associated illness.
Despite being elderly, a kidney from a relatively healthy 85-year-old donor could be a good match for an elderly recipient in their mid-70s. The patient’s creatinine levels suggest acute tubular necrosis and delayed graft function, but this is likely due to severe sepsis and the patient’s previous normal creatinine levels indicate good baseline renal function. The need for inotropes also suggests acute tubular necrosis, but this is consistent with the patient’s septic shock and acute illness, which could potentially improve after transplantation.
In summary, organ donation evaluation involves considering absolute contraindications such as malignancy, HIV, or CJD associated illness. Age and medical history of the donor and recipient are also important factors to consider. The patient’s current condition and potential for recovery after transplantation should also be taken into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used, each with its own mechanism of action and specific side effects. However, all of them carry the risk of increased susceptibility to infection and malignancy. At what age is new onset of diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) commonly associated with medication?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:New Onset Diabetes After Transplantation (NODAT)
New onset diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) is a condition that is becoming increasingly common among transplant recipients. It is estimated that between 5-20% of recipients develop NODAT within the first year after transplantation, and up to 30% in the longer term. The use of prednisolone is often associated with NODAT, especially in patients who had impaired glucose tolerance before the transplant. However, calcineurin inhibitors such as ciclosporin and tacrolimus are also known to increase the risk of NODAT. The risk of NODAT with ciclosporin is around 5%, while it can be as high as 20% with tacrolimus. Sirolimus, another immunosuppressive drug, is also believed to be diabetogenic, with similar rates to ciclosporin. It is worth noting that cyclophosphamide is not used in transplantation immunotherapy, while azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are not associated with NODAT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy?
Your Answer: Haemofiltration removes solutes by diffusion
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis removes solutes by osmosis
Explanation:Haemodialysis vs Haemofiltration
Haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two methods of renal replacement therapy used to treat patients with kidney failure. Haemodialysis involves removing blood at a high flow rate and passing it through a dialyser with dialysis fluid running in the opposite direction. This creates a constant diffusion gradient, allowing solutes to diffuse across and be removed from the blood. Haemodialysis is administered intermittently and is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient.
On the other hand, haemofiltration is less efficient and requires high volumes to achieve the same degree of solute clearance. It works by passing the blood at low flow rates but high pressures through the dialyser without dialysate fluid. Instead, a transmembrane pressure gradient is created, allowing fluid to be squeezed out. However, it is less efficient at solute clearance. Haemofiltration requires replacement fluid to be administered to avoid hypovolaemia due to the large volumes filtered.
In summary, haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two different methods of renal replacement therapy. Haemodialysis is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient, while haemofiltration is more efficient at clearing fluid but less efficient at solute clearance. Both methods have their advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of therapy depends on the patient’s individual needs and medical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old previously healthy teacher visits her doctor complaining of headache and itching. During her urine test, protein (3+) and blood (1+) are detected, but there are no splinter haemorrhages. What other bedside examination would be beneficial in evaluating her condition?
Your Answer: Blood glucose fingerprick test
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Assessment and Further Testing for Kidney Disease
Assessing kidney disease at the bedside involves several steps, including urinalysis, blood pressure measurement, and assessment of volume status. However, further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the disease. Blood testing for U&Es, autoantibodies, glucose, HbA1c, complement, and ANCA serology, as well as hepatitis and HIV viral screening, can provide valuable information.
In this case, the patient presents with features consistent with kidney disease, including an abnormal urinalysis. While diabetes could be a possible cause, the patient’s age makes it less likely. Therefore, additional testing is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the disease. Checking the patient’s blood pressure is also important, as hypertension is often associated with renal diseases. Aggressive management of hypertension can help prevent the progression of chronic renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?
Your Answer: Tacrolimus
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.
Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney disease of unknown origin. He is experiencing general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. His GFR has remained stable at 15 with a baseline creatinine of 385 μmol/L (and urea of 21 mmol/L) for over a year. However, recent blood work shows abnormal levels of Na, K, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, Ca, Phos, Hb, and MCV.
Which medication would be the most beneficial to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer: Calcichew D3
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin
Explanation:Recommended Treatment for a Patient with CKD Stage 5
Of the drugs listed, erythropoietin is the most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 who is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath due to low hemoglobin levels. However, it is important to check the patient’s haematinics to ensure that iron, B12, or folate supplementation would not be more beneficial. Alfacalcidol is typically used to treat hyperparathyroidism, but it is not necessary for CKD stage 5 patients until their parathyroid hormone levels rise above 28 pmol/L, according to the Renal Association Guidelines. Since the patient’s bicarbonate levels are normal, oral supplementation is not required. Calcichew D3 and sevelamer are phosphate binders that prevent hyperphosphataemia, but they are not necessary for this patient. For further information, refer to the Renal Association Clinical Practice Guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Correct
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What is not a cause of haematuria in children?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Causes of Haematuria
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be caused by various factors. Measles is not one of them. However, conditions such as meatal ulcer and urinary tract infection can lead to haematuria. Additionally, an advanced Wilms’ tumour can also cause this symptom. Another cause of haematuria is Schistosomiasis, which is a parasitic infection caused by Schistosoma haematobium. In this case, the blood in the urine is due to bladder involvement. It is important to identify the underlying cause of haematuria in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, there are various immunosuppressant drugs available. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs come with unwanted side effects, such as an increased risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects may vary depending on the drug's mechanism of action. Which immunosuppressant drug is linked to an elevated risk of bladder cancer in the long run and can cause haemorrhagic cystitis? Additionally, is this drug safe for use in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Tacrolimus
Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide and its Effects on the Body
Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that is commonly used to treat autoimmune diseases such as ANCA associated vasculitis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Once it is metabolized in the liver, it is converted into its active form, phosphoramide mustard, which causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes.
However, the drug can also produce a toxic compound called acrolein, which is harmful to the urothelium. Since the drug is excreted by the kidney, the bladder can accumulate high concentrations of acrolein, leading to potential damage. To prevent this, patients are often pre-hydrated to ensure that urine remains dilute and high concentrations are avoided.
In some cases, mesna is used to prevent urothelial damage. Mesna is believed to act as an antioxidant and can be particularly useful for patients receiving high doses of therapy. By taking these precautions, the harmful effects of cyclophosphamide can be minimized, allowing patients to receive the benefits of the drug without experiencing unnecessary harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg and grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. She has no known medical history. What clinical or biochemical finding could indicate a potential diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism?
Your Answer: Elevated renin activity
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism: A Common Cause of Hypertension
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a prevalent cause of hypertension that typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it is often asymptomatic in its early stages and may not be diagnosed until several decades later. This condition may account for approximately 10% of hypertension cases and is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, onset of hypertension at a young age, and hypertension that is difficult to control with more than three medications.
The primary cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is either adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia, which preferentially affects the zona glomerulosa. Adrenal adenomas are usually unilateral, but bilateral adenomas can occur in a minority of cases. On the other hand, adrenal hyperplasia typically causes bilateral disease. Despite the decreased occurrence of hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis in primary hyperaldosteronism, it remains a significant contributor to hypertension and should be considered in patients with uncontrolled hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B cells to quickly control ANCA associated vasculitides while sparing other lymphocytes?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Correct Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis
ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. There are several treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity of the disease. Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are induction agents used in severe or very active disease. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that causes profound B cell depletion.
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are maintenance agents used for their steroid sparing effect. They can also be used to induce remission in mild disease, but their maximal effect takes three to four weeks. Therefore, they are not appropriate for severe or very active disease. Ciclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that blocks IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells. However, it is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the disease and the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Are there any immunosuppressant drugs that can cause severe myelosuppression along with unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects? It is important to note that while all immunosuppressants have potential side effects such as increased risk of infection and malignancy, certain drugs may have specific side effects due to their unique mechanisms of action.
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Mycophenolate mofetil
Explanation:Myelosuppression and Gastrointestinal Side Effects of Immunosuppressive Drugs
Immunosuppressive drugs are commonly used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases and organ transplantation. However, they can cause myelosuppression, a condition where the bone marrow is suppressed and the production of blood cells is reduced. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is known to cause myelosuppression even at low doses, so it is important to monitor patients’ full blood count (FBC) after starting treatment with MMF or azathioprine. Azathioprine is also associated with myelosuppression, but it is more commonly linked to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) than gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
Patients taking MMF often experience diarrhea, which can be managed by starting with a low dose and gradually increasing it over several weeks. It is crucial to monitor patients for myelosuppression and other side effects of immunosuppressive drugs to ensure their safety and well-being. By doing so, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage or switch to a different medication if necessary. Proper monitoring and management of side effects can help patients achieve better outcomes and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120
Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?Your Answer: Celia Creutzfeldt
Correct Answer: Bella Barnard
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.
The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by ANCA associated vasculitis. He recently visited the clinic with complaints of sweating palms, weight loss, insomnia, and tremors. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, an undetectable TSH and a free T4 of 25 mg/dL (NR 4.5-11.5) were observed. The patient was diagnosed with Graves' disease after testing positive for thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (TSH-R) antibodies. Which medication could have potentially contributed to this condition?
Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Correct Answer: Alemtuzumab
Explanation:Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat autoimmune diseases and can cause lymphocyte depletion. However, it is associated with autoimmunity after treatment, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Regular thyroid function screening is important for patients who have received alemtuzumab. Other monoclonal antibodies, such as adalimumab, basiliximab, rituximab, and ciclosporin, are not known to be associated with autoimmunity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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As a locum GP, you are tasked with reviewing blood results for five patients you have never met before. The following results have been provided for each patient:
Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L
Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have CKD 5.Your Answer: Patient B
Correct Answer: Patient C
Explanation:Interpretation of Patient C’s Lab Results
Patient C’s lab results indicate chronic kidney disease (CKD) rather than acute renal failure (ARF). The creatinine result corresponds to an eGFR of less than 15 ml/min/1.73m2, which is consistent with CKD 5 in a male or female aged 20-80-years-old. Additionally, the patient has hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, which are metabolic changes commonly seen in CKD 4-5 but not in ARF of short duration. The relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea also suggests CKD rather than ARF, where dehydration can lead to even higher urea levels.
It is likely that this patient is already dialysis-dependent or will require regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients start dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four month history of general malaise, weight loss, night sweats and fevers.
Examination shows a non-blanching rash across her lower legs, feet and hands. She has mild widespread wheeze and a systolic murmur consistent with her known COPD and aortic stenosis.
Temperature is 38°C, BP 150/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein. Bloods show a raised creatinine at 140 umol/l, CRP of 230 mg/l, ESR of 45 mm/hr, with mild anaemia and mild leucocytosis. Her autoimmune screen is pending.
She is admitted for further investigation. What would be the next investigation of choice?Your Answer: Ultrasound renal tract
Correct Answer: Peripheral blood cultures
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of a Patient with Chronic Symptoms
The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with constitutional symptoms, a known valve lesion, fever, vasculitic rash, and raised inflammatory markers is subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE). Therefore, the most appropriate investigation would be blood cultures. Although her symptoms are consistent with a chronic infection, inflammatory process, or malignancy, the combination of her symptoms makes bacterial endocarditis the most likely diagnosis. A false positive ANCA test can be seen in chronic infections, and it is well described in SBE.
A chest radiograph would be appropriate to look for malignancy or infection in a woman with a smoking history and known COPD. However, the examination findings are not consistent with a lung malignancy, and the history is too chronic for pneumonia. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history when determining the appropriate investigation and diagnosis. Proper diagnosis and investigation can lead to effective treatment and management of the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
Urea - 5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/LYour Answer: Patient A
Correct Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.
Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.
Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are considering commencing a patient in their 60s on cilazapril. In discussion with the patient you mention that this is an ACE inhibitor.
The patient asks you what 'ACE' is.
What is the primary function of 'ACE'?Your Answer: Stimulation of angiotensinogen production in the liver
Correct Answer: Conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
Explanation:The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a pathway in the body that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance. It begins with the production of angiotensinogen in the liver, which is then converted to angiotensin 1 by the enzyme renin, produced in the kidneys. Angiotensin 1 is then converted to angiotensin 2 by the enzyme ACE, found in the lungs and kidneys. Angiotensin 2 has several functions, including the stimulation of aldosterone production by the adrenal gland. This hormone promotes the retention of sodium and water in the body, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
This pathway is commonly tested in medical school and beyond due to its clinical relevance in conditions such as hypertension and heart failure. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is crucial in the management of these conditions, as medications that target this pathway can be used to lower blood pressure and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. He reports that the pain began yesterday. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin +++
- Urobilinogen Negative
- Bilirubin Negative
- Protein Negative
- Glucose Negative
- Nitrites Negative
- Leucocytes Negative
- Ketones +
What could be the possible cause of these findings?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Renal calculus
Explanation:Renal Calculi: Causes and Symptoms
Renal calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can be caused by various factors such as reduced urine output, changes in medication, and diet. These factors can lead to the formation of stones in the urinary tract, which can cause inflammation and damage to the lining of the urinary tract. Patients with renal calculi may experience symptoms such as blood in their urine due to the damage caused by the stones. Additionally, ketones may be present in the urine, indicating reduced oral intake due to severe pain.
In summary, renal calculi can be caused by various factors and can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine and reduced oral intake. It is important for patients to seek medical attention if they suspect they may have renal calculi to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the name of the drug used to quickly achieve disease control in ANCA associated vasculitides by inducing DNA crosslinkage and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells during induction therapy?
Your Answer: Rituximab
Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Explanation:Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis
ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. To treat this condition, induction agents such as cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in severe or very active cases. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking, leading to apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. On the other hand, rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, causing profound B cell depletion.
For maintenance or steroid-sparing effects, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are commonly used. However, they take three to four weeks to have their maximal effect, making them unsuitable for severe or very active cases. Ciclosporin, a calcineurin inhibitor, is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis, despite its use in transplantation to block IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells.
In summary, the treatment options for ANCA vasculitis depend on the severity of the disease. Induction agents such as cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in severe or very active cases, while maintenance agents like azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are used for mild cases. Ciclosporin is not commonly used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is undergoing his routine dialysis treatment when he suddenly experiences intense chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has been on dialysis for the past nine years and uses a fistula for the procedure. So far, there have been no issues with the dialysis machine or circuit. After the session, his blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, and an ECG is performed. What could be the probable reason for his chest pain?
Your Answer: Air embolism
Correct Answer: Acute coronary syndrome
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome is the most common cause of chest pain and shortness of breath in dialysis patients due to their increased risk of coronary disease. Air embolism, hypotension, massive haemolysis, and pulmonary embolism are also possible causes but are less likely. Air embolism is rare but can occur in patients with central lines, while hypotension is more common in the elderly and new starters on dialysis. Massive haemolysis is rare but serious, and pulmonary embolism can occur if there is a known thrombus in the fistula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.
However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.
He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.
What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Haemodialysis line infection
Explanation:Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection
When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.
While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of myalgia and brown-coloured urine. She has been diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis for the fourth time, and the cause is still unknown.
What investigation should be considered at this point?Your Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:Investigating Recurrent Rhabdomyolysis: Genetic Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of muscle fibers into the bloodstream. This can cause kidney damage and other complications. In some cases, rhabdomyolysis may be caused by genetic polymorphisms or mutations that affect processes such as ATP production and calcium movement. Patients who have had recurrent episodes of unexplained rhabdomyolysis, especially those without obvious traumatic, drug-related, or toxic cause, should be investigated for genetic causes. Muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases.
Other diagnostic tests may also be helpful in certain situations. For example, the Gal-1 PUT test can be used to diagnose galactosaemia, a rare genetic disorder that can cause rhabdomyolysis in infants. Renin and aldosterone levels may be useful if primary hyperaldosteronism causing hypokalaemia is suspected as the cause of rhabdomyolysis, but this is rare in children. GFR testing is only necessary if there is renal impairment, and haemodialysis may be necessary in cases of severe renal failure.
In summary, recurrent rhabdomyolysis should be investigated for genetic causes, and muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases. Other diagnostic tests may be helpful in certain situations, but their use should be guided by the patient’s clinical presentation and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his three-hour session. These cramps persist throughout the evening after dialysis and gradually subside. What substance are we removing excessively that could be causing these cramps?
Your Answer: Potassium
Correct Answer: Fluid
Explanation:The patient is likely experiencing cramps due to too much fluid being removed during dialysis, leading to hypoperfusion of muscles. Hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia can also cause cramps, but are less likely to be the cause in this case. Removal of urea is unlikely to cause any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and overweight presents to his GP with severe hypertension. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is a risk factor for the development of renal artery stenosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Gender
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and its Risk Factors
Renal artery stenosis is a common cause of hypertension that occurs when the renal arteries become narrowed, reducing blood flow to the kidneys. This condition can be unilateral or bilateral and can lead to the release of renin, which stimulates aldosterone production through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
Individuals with a history of COPD are likely to have a smoking history of at least 20-pack years, if not more. Although COPD can be caused by other factors such as alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency or coal mining, the presence of COPD in a patient’s medical history should raise suspicion of a smoking history.
The most common cause of renal artery stenosis is atherosclerotic disease, which shares similar risk factors with cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease. These risk factors include smoking, hypertension, female gender, hypercholesterolemia with low HDL cholesterol and high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, and peripheral vascular disease and erectile dysfunction, which are indicative of arteriopathy/atherosclerosis.
In summary, renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to hypertension and is commonly caused by atherosclerotic disease. Individuals with a history of COPD should be evaluated for smoking history, and those with risk factors for cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease should be monitored for the development of renal artery stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is struggling with hypertension that is not responding to his current medications. His GP added ramipril to his amlodipine and doxazosin two months ago, but his blood pressure remains high at 162/75 mmHg. The GP decides to increase the ramipril dose to 1.25 mg once daily. However, the patient already has mild renal impairment due to his hypertension, so the GP follows NICE guidance and orders further renal function testing in two weeks. Unfortunately, the patient's creatinine level has increased from 150 to 210 μmol/L. What should the GP's next course of action be?
Your Answer: Stop the ACE inhibitor and start an angiotensin receptor blocker
Correct Answer: Refer to renal services for further investigation
Explanation:Possible Renal Artery Stenosis in Resistant Hypertension
When a patient experiences a rise in their serum creatinine of more than 30% after starting an ACE inhibitor, it may suggest that they have underlying renal artery stenosis causing their resistant hypertension. However, a rise of less than 23% can be considered normal, and it is recommended to repeat blood tests in two weeks to ensure that the creatinine levels are not increasing.
A renal ultrasound may not provide a clear answer, and it is ideal to perform an angiogram to confirm the diagnosis. This can be done as a CT or MR angiogram for planning purposes, or as a combined angiogram with or without angioplasty if renal artery stenosis is found. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of renal artery stenosis in patients with resistant hypertension and a significant rise in serum creatinine after starting an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. During the examination, her urine test shows positive results for protein. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is discovered that this is the first time she has had proteinuria. What further tests should be conducted to investigate this finding?
Your Answer: ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) and microbiology
Explanation:Investigating Proteinuria in Diabetic Patients
Proteinuria or microalbuminuria is a significant finding in diabetic patients. It indicates an increased risk of developing diabetic nephropathy in type 1 diabetes and an additional risk factor for cardiovascular disease in type 2 diabetes. When a diabetic patient presents with proteinuria, it is crucial to rule out infection, which is a common cause of increased urinary protein excretion. A urine microbiology test can identify the presence of infection, while an albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) can quantify the degree of proteinuria and allow for future monitoring. Although HbA1c, serum urea/creatinine, and plasma glucose are standard tests for monitoring diabetic patients, they do not help quantify urinary protein loss or exclude infection. A high HbA1c in this situation could indicate longstanding poor glycemic control or poor glycemic control for several weeks due to infection. Therefore, ACR and urine microbiology are the most useful investigations to investigate proteinuria in diabetic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident. The duration of his lying there is uncertain. Upon the arrival of paramedics, his GCS is 10, and his blood pressure is 92/66 mmHg with a pulse of 96 bpm. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, his blood test results reveal a urea level of 44 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5 - 7.5) and a creatinine level of 620 µmol/l (normal range: 60 - 110). A catheterization procedure produces 50 mls of brown-colored urine. What additional blood test should be requested to determine the cause of his kidney dysfunction?
Your Answer: HbA1c
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis and Compartment Syndrome
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that can occur as a result of various factors, including trauma, crush injury, compartment syndrome, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders, and certain drugs. In order to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, a CK test should be requested.
One of the common causes of rhabdomyolysis is trauma, such as a road traffic accident. In such cases, it is important to rule out compartment syndrome, which can develop due to the effects of rhabdomyolysis on muscle fibres. Compartment syndrome is characterized by a disruption to the oxygen supply to the muscle, leading to ATP depletion and a build-up of intracellular calcium. This can cause myocyte swelling and impaired function, leading to hypovolaemia and excess fluid sequestration.
Restoring the blood supply can cause reperfusion injury, which can further damage the myocytes and cause them to swell further, leading to the development of compartment syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to address compartment syndrome in trauma patients in order to improve their clinical picture. By the causes and effects of rhabdomyolysis and compartment syndrome, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent a kidney transplant from a deceased brainstem donor and experienced successful primary graft function. After being discharged eight days post-surgery, his creatinine levels stabilized at 85 umol/l with regular clinic visits. However, at seven weeks post-transplant, his creatinine levels increased to 190 umol/l despite being asymptomatic. As a result, he was admitted for further evaluation. What would be your initial course of action?
Your Answer: Send serum for donor specific antibodies
Correct Answer: Request a renal ultrasound scan
Explanation:The patient’s sudden rise in creatinine after stent removal suggests obstruction leading to hydronephrosis. This is the most likely diagnosis, but other possibilities include acute rejection, calcineurin toxicity, infection, or surgical complications. A renal ultrasound is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other issues before a renal biopsy can be considered. Donor specific antibodies may also be tested, but a biopsy is still necessary for confirmation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Adjusted calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
PTH: 8.09 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
Creatinine: 145 μmol/L (60-120)
25 OH Vit D: 48 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Creatinine and Calcium Homeostasis in CKD 3 Patients
In patients with CKD 3, elevated creatinine levels indicate a decline in kidney function. However, interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without considering factors such as body habitus and muscle mass. To determine the severity of CKD 3, an eGFR calculation can be performed, which typically results in a value of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2.
Patients with CKD 3 may experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. While plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate are usually normal at this stage, subtle changes may occur as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4. For example, reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase can lead to a slight increase in PTH levels.
Vitamin D insufficiency is common in CKD3 patients and can be caused by various risk factors such as old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color. While suboptimal levels of vitamin D may contribute to calcium homeostasis abnormalities, it is not the only factor to consider in CKD3 management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: Coagulase negative staph
Explanation:Causes of PD Peritonitis
PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department feeling generally ill. The laboratory contacts you to report dangerously low serum sodium levels before you can see him. After diagnosis, it is discovered that he has a hormone excess. Which hormone could be the cause?
Your Answer: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:Hormonal Imbalances and Their Effects on Sodium Levels
Hormones play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including water and sodium balance. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) allows for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, independent of sodium. However, an excess of ADH can lead to hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is commonly caused by dehydration, but can also be due to medications, tumours, or lung diseases.
On the other hand, aldosterone is responsible for tubular Na+ and Cl- reabsorption, water retention, and K+ excretion. In excess, one would expect hypernatraemia, or high levels of sodium in the blood. However, the elevation in plasma sodium is usually mild, as the increased sodium is balanced by water retention.
When ADH is excessively produced, it is known as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). This results in net retention of water and a decrease in sodium levels. In mild cases, this can cause confusion and unsteadiness, but in severe cases, it can lead to coma and even death.
It is important to note that hyponatraemia is a common finding in hospitalized patients, and inappropriate ADH secretion is often blamed. However, this should only be considered in the context of a euvolaemic patient, meaning they are not dehydrated or overloaded. Correction of this imbalance should be prioritized before seeking other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for six years contacts the clinic with concerns. The patient reports infusing 1.5 litres of fluid into their abdomen but only being able to remove 1 litre at the end of their dwell. However, the patient is not experiencing any symptoms and does not have ankle oedema.
What could be causing this issue?Your Answer: Catheter kinking
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Common Causes of Catheter Outflow Obstruction in Peritoneal Dialysis Patients
Constipation is a frequent cause of catheter outflow obstruction in patients who have been on peritoneal dialysis for a while. This can happen at any point and is due to the low-fiber renal diet that is recommended to avoid potassium and phosphate excess. The design of PD fluid with osmotic agents means that fluid should not be absorbed in significant quantities. If absorption is occurring, patients will show signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating that a higher concentration of osmotic agent is required. Leakage is noticeable as either fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the exit site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues.
Catheter malposition is often painful and tends to occur early on after insertion, not years after catheter placement. Kinking of the catheter also usually occurs early after insertion and may vary with position. It tends to cause problems with fluid inflow as well as outflow. By these common causes of catheter outflow obstruction, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat peritoneal dialysis patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man was diagnosed with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) two years ago and achieved remission after receiving pulsed cyclophosphamide. He has been maintained on oral azathioprine and a low dose of prednisolone since then. Recently, he returned to the clinic before his scheduled appointment with worsening ENT symptoms, haemoptysis, and declining renal function. Two months prior, he had a superficial bladder cancer (stage Ta, no invasion, single lesion) that was resected, followed by a single dose of postoperative chemotherapy. Given his new diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment for his vasculitis flare?
Your Answer: Repeat pulsed cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Rituximab therapy
Explanation:Treatment Dilemma for a Patient with Vasculitis
This patient is facing a difficult situation as he requires immunosuppressive therapy to manage his vasculitis, which is organ-threatening, but most immunosuppressants increase the risk of cancer. Increasing oral steroids would provide short-term relief but come with significant side effects. Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are unlikely to control his disease in time and are associated with an increased risk of malignancy. Cyclophosphamide should be avoided as it is known to cause bladder cancer.
However, there is a potential solution in rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a surface marker on most B cells. Rituximab has been shown to be as effective as cyclophosphamide in treating ANCA vasculitis, but with a much better side effect profile. A two-year course of rituximab therapy can even allow for the withdrawal of other immunosuppressants, which would be particularly helpful in this patient’s case. Overall, while the patient’s situation is challenging, rituximab may provide a viable treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a general feeling of being unwell. He has no history of chronic disease or renal impairment. Upon blood testing, his results show elevated levels of creatinine, urea, potassium, creatine kinase, and phosphate, as well as a slightly low sodium level and an elevated CRP level. What could be the possible cause of his renal impairment?
Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Correct Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that results from muscle damage and lysis of muscle cells. This leads to the release of cellular contents such as potassium, myoglobin, CK, and phosphate into the bloodstream. Excessive myoglobin release overwhelms the ability of haptoglobin to clear it, leading to its filtration by the glomerulus and entry into the urine. This causes damage to tubular cells in the renal tubule, resulting in free radical release and cast formation.
There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injury, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders such as McArdle’s disease, and drugs such as barbiturates and statins (although this is rare).
In summary, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria are serious conditions that can result from a variety of causes. the underlying mechanisms and potential triggers can help with early diagnosis and treatment, which is crucial for preventing further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Calcineurin inhibitor toxicity
Correct Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy
Explanation:Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients
Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.
BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.
Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 39
Correct
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What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?
Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste
Explanation:The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate
In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.
However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.
The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a history of mild anaemia. The physician orders several urine tests. The results are as follows:
- Negative for haemoglobin, urobilinogen, and bilirubin
- Positive for protein
- Negative for glucose, nitrites, and leucocytes
- Positive for ketones
- +++ for Bence Jones
What could be the possible reason for these results?Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Myeloma Diagnosis and Blood Results
Myeloma is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed through various tests. One of the most common indicators is a positive test for Bence Jones protein, which is a type of protein found in the urine. This cancer can also cause proteinuria, which is the presence of excess protein in the urine due to renal damage or overflow from high blood total protein. Additionally, longstanding anaemia is another sign of myeloma.
Blood results for a patient with myeloma are likely to show elevated total protein, possibly with low albumin. There may also be an abnormally high level of one type of globulin, while other immunoglobulins may be suppressed. Protein electrophoresis testing can reveal the presence of a monoclonal (paraprotein) band with immunosuppression. High serum calcium with suppressed parathyroid hormone consistent with hypercalcaemia of malignancy is also common. Furthermore, high phosphate levels are often seen in haematological malignancy where there is a large amount of cell turnover. Renal impairment is another common finding, usually due to the deposition of myeloma casts in the nephrons. However, hypercalcaemia can also cause dehydration in addition.
In summary, a diagnosis of myeloma can be made through various tests, including a positive Bence Jones protein test, proteinuria, and longstanding anaemia. Blood results for a patient with myeloma are likely to show elevated total protein, a monoclonal band, high serum calcium, high phosphate, and renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
Tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?Your Answer: Anti-nuclear factor
Correct Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A patient in their late 60s with end stage renal disease on haemodialysis is admitted with sudden onset of wheezing and shortness of breath. They have swollen ankles and a raised JVP of 7 cm, with a blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg. Upon chest examination, there are widespread coarse crackles. A chest radiograph reveals complete opacification of both lung fields and blunting of the left costophrenic angle. The patient had their usual haemodialysis session the previous night. What could be the potential cause of this acute presentation?
Your Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Cardiovascular Risk in Haemodialysis Patients
Haemodialysis patients are at a significantly higher risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Therefore, any sudden deterioration in their condition is a cause for concern. In the case of a previously stable dialysis patient presenting with low blood pressure, excess fluid intake is unlikely to be the cause. Instead, a cardiac event is the most likely explanation.
It is improbable that inadequate haemodialysis is the cause of the patient’s symptoms, as they had a session less than 24 hours ago. Furthermore, if this were the case, the patient would likely have high blood pressure due to fluid accumulation.
While patients on dialysis are more susceptible to infections, the presentation is consistent with acute pulmonary oedema. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe. Therefore, it is essential to monitor haemodialysis patients closely for any signs of cardiovascular disease and promptly address any acute events that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 43
Correct
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What is the most optimal choice for establishing a permanent entry point for haemodialysis treatment?
Your Answer: Radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula
Explanation:Haemodialysis Access Options
Haemodialysis access is the formation of a permanent connection between an artery and a vein to allow for efficient dialysis treatment. The ideal location for this connection is in the arm, where the radial artery is joined to the cephalic vein on the non-dominant arm. If this is not possible, a brachial artery-cephalic vein connection is formed higher up the arm. Leg fistulas are used as a last resort due to complications such as infection and positional access.
In cases where a direct arteriovenous connection is not possible, a PTFE graft is used. However, this foreign material has a higher risk of infection. A tunnelled internal jugular dialysis catheter is a good option for urgent access, but it is not as efficient as fistulas in clearing waste products due to recirculation of blood.
Tenckhoff catheters are used for peritoneal dialysis. It is important to consider the pros and cons of each option when choosing the best haemodialysis access for a patient. Fistulas are the preferred option, but in some cases, other options may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years, he experienced hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Avascular Necrosis and Its Causes
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the bones is temporarily or permanently lost. This can be caused by various factors, including trauma or vascular disease. Some of the conditions that can lead to AVN include hypertension, sickle cell disease, caisson disease, and radiation-induced arthritis. Additionally, certain factors such as corticosteroid therapy, connective tissue disease, alcohol abuse, marrow storage disease (Gaucher’s disease), and dyslipoproteinaemia can also be associated with AVN in a more complex manner.
Of all the cases of non-traumatic avascular necrosis, 35% are associated with systemic (oral or intravenous) corticosteroid use. It is important to understand the causes of AVN in order to prevent and manage the condition effectively. By identifying the underlying factors that contribute to AVN, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and help patients manage their symptoms. With proper care and management, individuals with AVN can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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As an Emergency department doctor, a 24-year-old man comes to the department with a complaint of blood in his urine that started yesterday. He is typically healthy but recently had a throat infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows: Haemoglobin +++, Urobilinogen Negative, Bilirubin Negative, Protein +, Glucose Negative, Nitrites Negative, Leucocytes Negative, and Ketones +. What could be the probable reason for these findings?
Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Explanation:Nephritic Syndrome and its Underlying Conditions
Nephritic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by blood in the urine, which is likely to be of renal origin. However, it is not a diagnosis in itself and can occur with various underlying renal conditions. The main differential diagnosis for nephritic syndrome is renal stones, which are usually associated with pain.
The underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome include many types of glomerulonephritis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Goodpasture syndrome, infective endocarditis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or lupus nephritis, vasculitis, and viral diseases such as hepatitis B or C, EBV, measles, and mumps.
When diagnosing nephritic syndrome, urinalysis is crucial as it will show abundant haemoglobin. However, it is important to note that this can sometimes lead to false positives for bilirubin and urobilinogen, which are related substances. the underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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As a GP, you examine a 28-year-old pregnant woman who complains of mild ankle swelling. She denies any symptoms of a urinary tract infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results are obtained:
Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: ++
Glucose: ++
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: ++
Ketones: Negative
What could be the possible explanation for these findings?Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Healthy pregnancy
Explanation:Urinalysis in Pregnancy: Common Abnormalities and Importance of Monitoring
Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool for detecting renal diseases and other medical conditions. During pregnancy, even asymptomatic and healthy women may exhibit abnormalities on urinalysis. These abnormalities include small amounts of glucose, as pregnancy alters the renal threshold for glucose, and small amounts of protein, which can be a sign of pre-eclampsia. Ketones should not be present unless the patient is fasting, and prolonged fasting is not recommended. Pregnant women may also have sterile pyuria and non-specific changes in leukocytes.
It is important to monitor pregnant women for urinary infections, as they have been linked to premature labor. However, minor and non-specific changes on urinalysis can falsely reassure clinicians. Pregnant women are at an increased risk of UTIs and may present with atypical symptoms or unusual urinalysis features. Therefore, urine should be sent for culture if there are any concerns.
In summary, urinalysis is a vital investigation during pregnancy to detect abnormalities and monitor for urinary infections. Clinicians should be aware of the common abnormalities seen on urinalysis during pregnancy and the importance of careful monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. They have previously been diagnosed with a condition by their former GP. The GP orders blood tests and the results are as follows:
Adjusted calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
Phosphate 2.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
PTH 12.53 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
Urea 22.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
Creatinine 540 µmol/L (60-120)
25 OH Vit D 32 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: CKD 5
Explanation:Differentiating Chronic Kidney Disease from Acute Renal Failure
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and acute renal failure (ARF) can both result in elevated creatinine levels, but other factors can help differentiate between the two conditions. In the case of a patient with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, CKD is more likely than ARF. These metabolic changes are commonly seen in CKD 4-5 and are not typically present in ARF of short duration. Additionally, the relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea suggests CKD rather than ARF, which can be caused by dehydration and result in even higher urea levels.
This patient likely has CKD and may already be dependent on dialysis or under regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients begin dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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As a locum GP, you come across a 40-year-old woman who is experiencing chills, pelvic discomfort, and painful urination. This patient has no history of diabetes. What are the possible urinalysis results that you might expect in this scenario?
A) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: +, Glucose: +++, Nitrites: Negative, Leucocytes: +, Ketones: Negative
B) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: +, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: ++, Ketones: +++
C) Haemoglobin: +++, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: +++, Ketones: Negative
D) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: ++++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: +++
E) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: +, Bilirubin: +, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: Negative
It is important to note that the urinalysis results may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and medical history. As a healthcare professional, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination and analysis to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient.Your Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:Urinalysis Findings in Urinary Tract Infection
Urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common condition that can be diagnosed through urinalysis. Nitrites and leucocytes are typically present in large amounts in the urine of patients with UTI. Blood may also be present due to inflammation in the bladder or contamination from menstrual bleeding. In some cases, a small amount of glucose may be detected as the body responds to infection by releasing cortisol and adrenaline, which can increase blood glucose levels. However, the presence of protein on urinalysis is usually based on measurement of albumin only, and bacterial proteins are not typically detected using this method. Overall, urinalysis can provide valuable information for diagnosing and managing UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What is a frequently occurring complication of this condition?
Your Answer: Increased risk of bleeding
Correct Answer: Increased risk of pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome and its Complications
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by three main symptoms: hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and edema. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk of developing complications such as thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also a possible complication of nephrotic syndrome, although not all patients with the condition will have a history of established renal disease prior to presentation. The risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome.
One unusual complication of nephrotic syndrome is hypercalcemia, which is not commonly seen in this condition. Abnormal plasma protein proportions can cause changes in the binding of electrolytes, drugs, and other solutes, leading to low ionized calcium levels. In severe cases, this may result in symptoms of hypocalcemia. However, in CKD, hypocalcemia is a common occurrence and can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism.
In summary, the symptoms and complications of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for proper management and treatment of the condition. While hypercalcemia is not a common complication, patients with nephrotic syndrome are at an increased risk of developing thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Additionally, the risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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