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  • Question 1 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Effacement of the cervix

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Correct

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness. Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Correct

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at 31 weeks gestation. She is lethargic, clinically jaundiced and complains of abdominal pain with frequent vomiting. You suspect acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP). What is the maternal mortality rate with AFLP?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy occurs in 1-10000 pregnancies and presents as jaundice with abdominal pain. The maternal mortality is around 20%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 53 year old lady presents to clinic due to vulval itch and...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old lady presents to clinic due to vulval itch and discolouration. examination reveals pale white discoloured areas to the vulva. A biopsy shows epidermal atrophy with sub-epidermal hyalinization and deeper inflammatory infiltrate. What is this characteristic of?

      Your Answer: Lichen Sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is characterized by hypopigmented atrophic plaque in the perineal region along with features of pruritis and dyspareunia.
      It is more common in post menopausal women and on histology there is epidermal atrophy, inflammatory infiltrate in the dermis and basal layer degeneration.

      Vitiligo is characterised by hypopigmentation but without any other symptoms.
      Extramammary Paget’s disease is characterized by erythematous plaque located mostly in the perianal region but its histology is different.
      Lichen simplex chronicus is a chronic scaly pruritic condition characterized by itchy papules and plaques plus lichenification and it mostly results from chronic irritation and itching of the area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?...

    Correct

    • According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer: The death of a women whilst pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The WHO defines maternal death as female death from any cause related to pregnancy or its management, including childbirth or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy. This is irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy. She has had...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy. She has had only one previous pregnancy in which her foetus had spina bifida. Identify the most appropriate assessment, from the following choices, that would aid in detection of spina bifida in her current pregnancy.

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the fetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound of the foetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation is the most appropriate assessment (correct answer).

      Ultrasound performed at 11-12 weeks of gestation can diagnose anencephaly, another neural tube defect, however; any vertebral column defect is unlikely to be detected.

      In most cases of neural tube defects in the foetus, elevations will be noted in maternal alpha-fetoprotein levels at 12 to 15 weeks. However, it may not be possible to detect all such abnormalities and a confirmed diagnosis cannot be made.

      Additionally, elevations in alpha-fetoprotein levels do not always correlate to the presence of foetal neural tube defects.

      Nuchal translucency scans do not detect neural tube defects. They are performed to identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      124.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Moist skin desquamation

      Explanation:

      Tissues with actively dividing cells, such as bone marrow and gastrointestinal mucosa, are particularly sensitive to ionising radiation. Lymphocyte depletion is the most sensitive marker of bone marrow injury, and after exposure to
      a fatal dose, marrow aplasia is a common cause of death. The gonads are highly radiosensitive and radiation may result in temporary or permanent sterility. Stochastic (chance) effects occur with increasing probability
      as the dose of radiation increases. Carcinogenesis represents a stochastic effect. With acute exposures, leukaemias may arise after an interval of around 2–5 years and solid tumours after an interval of about 10–20 years. Moist skin desquamation can be an acute reaction to both radio and chemotherapy whereas fibrosis and lymphoedema are late complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Blood pH

      Explanation:

      Elements of the Apgar score include colour, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiration. Apgar scoring is designed to assess for signs of hemodynamic compromise such as cyanosis, hypoperfusion, bradycardia, hypotonia, respiratory depression or apnoea. Each element is scored 0 (zero), 1, or 2. The score is recorded at 1 minute and 5 minutes in all infants with expanded recording at 5-minute intervals for infants who score 7 or less at 5 minutes, and in those requiring resuscitation as a method for monitoring response. Scores of 7 to 10 are considered reassuring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
      – Oral contraceptive use
      – Higher Parity
      – Breast feeding
      – Hysterectomy
      – Tubal Ligation
      – Statins
      – SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart...

    Incorrect

    • Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy. You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer: Requirement for further assessment of withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight

      Explanation:

      If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
      – excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
      – suspected baby neglect or abuse
      – suspected domestic violence
      – a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.

      A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her. Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Discontinue sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.

      Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.

      Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.

      On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.

      If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior or posterior fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum and may require additional manevours to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed. The most common injury that can occur, is to the brachial plexus due to lateral flexion of the head during traction. This may cause a neurological disability, Erb’s Palsy ( injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus) in which there is a less than 10% chance that this injury would be permanent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Incorrect

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Correct Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?

      Your Answer: Retained product

      Correct Answer: DIC

      Explanation:

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      86.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male...

    Correct

    • If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
      Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.

      Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
      ‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
      ‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
      ‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
      ‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
      ‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
      ‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.

      Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins. Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is the primary stimulus for uterine involution following childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since the last 12 months. She has a history of primary infertility. Of the hormone assays listed in the options, identify the assay that would indicate pregnancy if its result is significantly elevated.

      Your Answer: Serum luteinising hormone {LH).

      Explanation:

      The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.

      The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.

      The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).

      The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.

      The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      These are features of excess growth hormone i.e. Acromegaly. Down’s and Cri du chat typically cause Micrognathia (small jaw)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage requiring hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony

      Correct Answer: Placenta accreta

      Explanation:

      Placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta are the most common reasons for considering hysterectomy as an inevitable treatment option in postpartum hemorrhage.

      Placental villi normally invade only the superficial layers of endometrial deciduas basalis, but when the invasion is too deep into the uterine wall, the condition is termed as placenta accreta, increta or percreta depending on the depth of invasion.
      – When the villi invade the deeper layers of the endometrial deciduus basalis, but not the myometrium it is called as Placenta accreta. This is the most common type of decidual invasion and accounts for approximately 75% of the cases.
      – When the villi invade the myometrium, but do not reach the uterine serosa or the bladder is called Placenta increta. This type accounts for nearly 15% of cases.
      – In cases were the villi invades into the uterine serosa or the bladder is it called as Placenta percreta and this happens in 5% of cases.

      Prior uterine surgery is the main risk factor for placenta accreta and the best management is elective cesarean hysterectomy.
      postpartum hemorrhage can also be caused by conditions like genital lacerations, uterine atony, retained products of conception and uterine inversion. In most of these above mentioned cases, hysterectomy is not required and remains as the last resort in extremely desperate situations.

      NOTE– Though uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, it is often manageable medically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making...

    Correct

    • Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making a Joel Cohen incision where should this be placed?

      Your Answer: 3 cm above the symphysis pubis

      Explanation:

      The Joel Cohen incision is superior to the Pffannenstiel incision. It is a straight incision that is 3 cm below the line joining the anterior iliac spines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: She should use intrauterine contraceptive device

      Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg

      Explanation:

      Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:

      Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
      Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
      If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
      Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparation

      All other options are not acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      80.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 43-year-old woman, with a history of bilateral tubal ligation, presents with regular...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman, with a history of bilateral tubal ligation, presents with regular but excessively heavy periods. She has a history of multiple uterine leiomyoma and her uterus is the size of a 12-week pregnancy. Pap smear is normal; haemoglobin level is 93 g/L. She underwent dilatation and curettage 8 months ago but it did not result in symptom improvement nor was it able to find the underlying cause of her symptoms. Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Oral progestogen therapy for 21 days (day 5-26) is considered effective but is only a short-term therapy for menorrhagia. Myomectomy should only be considered if the woman would like to conceive later on. Due to the recurrent nature of fibroids, it is likely that the woman would need more surgeries in the future, which is not ideal. Furthermore, if there is a large number of fibroids or the size of the fibroids are large, myomectomy would not be an option for reasons such as the feasibility. If myomectomy for multiple fibroids prove to be unsuccessful, the ultimate outcome would still have to be a hysterectomy.

      In cases where there is significant enlargement of the uterus, endometrial ablation would be difficult and the long-term cure rate of symptoms would be considerably low. The best next step would be a total abdominal hysterectomy since it would solve her menorrhagia and within a few years’ time, she would be expected to attain menopause anyway. Ponstan or mefenamic acid has been found to be superior to tranexamic acid for menorrhagia. However, it can still prove to be ineffective in some cases and also not a long term solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction.There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect. Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: Would it be okay if your mother stepped out of the room so we can talk about your results?

      Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      107.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates? ...

    Correct

    • Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates?

      Your Answer: Dysplasia

      Explanation:

      Dysplasia has 4 microscopic characteristics:
      Anisocytosis (unequal cell size)
      Poikilocytosis (abnormal cell shape)
      Hyperchromatism (pigmentation)
      Mitotic figures (increased cells currently dividing)

      Hyperplasia and hypertrophy is characterised by increase in cell number and increase in cell size respectively, whereas atrophy means decrease in cell size.
      Metaplasia is characterised by change of one form of cell to another type e.g. changes of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby. Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at: ...

    Correct

    • The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:

      Your Answer: 10 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, concentrations of hCG in the blood and urine usually double every 24 hours. Levels of the hormone typically peak at around 10 weeks, decline until 16 weeks, then remain constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000...

    Incorrect

    • Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?

      Your Answer: Increase confidence intervals

      Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors

      Explanation:

      Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Correct

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Correct

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The testicular arteries are branches of what? ...

    Correct

    • The testicular arteries are branches of what?

      Your Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Nulliparity

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      20% of the patients with breast cancer will have hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - The vulva is mainly supplied by which one of the following vessels? ...

    Correct

    • The vulva is mainly supplied by which one of the following vessels?

      Your Answer: Pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      Vulva is defined by the area which is located outside the female vagina and comprises of the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, mons pubis and Bartholin glands. It is supplied by the vestibula branch of pudental artery.
      Inferior hemorrhoidal artery supplies the lower part of the rectum.
      Femoral artery is the continuation of external iliac artery and supplies most of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer: 2B

      Explanation:

      This is stage 2B.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension 2 Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH? ...

    Incorrect

    • Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH?

      Your Answer: 7.22

      Correct Answer: 7.18

      Explanation:

      A pH value below than 7.18 indicates acidosis which can result in hypoxic brain injury. In order to prevent brain injury, immediate delivery of the foetus should be planned. The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 18-22 weeks

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute hepatitis

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the placenta

      Correct Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina. She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginitis.

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.

      Explanation:

      This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.

      An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.

      Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.

      Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      As B-HCG and TSH have similar structures, increased B-HCG can lead to hyperthyroidism, however there is only a 3% chance of this happening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO...

    Correct

    • What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: 15 million spermatozoa per ml

      Explanation:

      WHO guidelines
      Semen volume: Greater than or equal to 1.5 ml
      pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
      Sperm concentration: Greater than or equal to 15 million spermatozoa per ml
      Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more
      Total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
      Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
      Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is the hormone that is responsible for the production of milk (Lactogenesis). Oxytocin is responsible for the let down reflex during suckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest: ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:

      Your Answer: During breast feeding

      Correct Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of...

    Incorrect

    • Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:

      Your Answer: Attitude

      Correct Answer: Lie

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      170.8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to finger splinter that has been removed. The HCA took some routine obs that show her blood pressure to be 162/110. She is 32 weeks pregnant. According to the NICE guidelines which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral nifedipine and review in outpatients in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Admit and start oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      BP over 159/109 is classed as Severe. NICE guidance advises admission and treatment with oral Labetalol as 1st Line. Patient should have BP checked QDS and shouldn’t be discharged until BP is below 159/109

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 2g MgSO4 in 500ml Normal saline in 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.

      Explanation:

      The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
      Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 3c

      Correct Answer: 3a

      Explanation:

      1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
      2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
      3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
      i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
      (usually there is complete disruption of the
      external sphincter).
      4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?

      Your Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      CMV effects 1 in 200 pregnancies of which 30% will transmit the virus to the foetus and of which 30% foetus will be effected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation. She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation. Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending. From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increases by approximately 50%

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already. Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Fish oil

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination. Which of the following is considered the best step to do?

      Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.

      HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.

      The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.

      Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer. What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.

      Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.

      The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.

      Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
      Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department. She is at 40...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department. She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements. On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min. On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive. On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced. She is reassured and allowed to return home. 24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history. What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent oxytocin challenge test.

      Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer: External urethral sphincter

      Correct Answer: Internal anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The internal anal sphincter is innervated by pelvic splanchnic nerves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?

      Your Answer: Simple squamous

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Significant puerperal pyrexia is defined as a temperature of 38ºC or higher on any two of the first 10 days postpartum, exclusive of the first 24 hours. A mixed flora normally colonizes the vagina with low virulence. Puerperal infection is usually polymicrobial and involves contaminants from the bowel that colonize the perineum and lower genital tract. Following delivery, natural barriers to infection are temporarily removed and therefore organisms with a pathogenic potential can ascend from the lower genital tract into the uterine cavity. Placental separation exposes a large raw area equivalent to an open wound, and retained products of conception and blood clots within the uterus can provide an excellent culture medium for infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Correct Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the...

    Correct

    • In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staph aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill...

    Incorrect

    • Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37. What should be the next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness and groin pain. You assess her and find the numb area is the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      This describes the sensory area supplied by the ilioinguinal nerve. This is a potential complication with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular...

    Incorrect

    • How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular lobule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      There are between 250 and 400 lobules in each testis. The lobule is a structural unit of the testis with each lobule contained in one of the intervals between fibrous septa which extend between the mediastinum testis and the tunica albuginea. Each lobule contains 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 1+. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the urine result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send urine for protein:creatinine ratio

      Explanation:

      For a diagnosis of Preeclampsia to be established, hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week should be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Togaviruses

      Explanation:

      The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nondisjunction maternal gamete

      Explanation:

      Most of the cases of down syndrome occur due to non disjunction trisomy 21 which is associated with increased maternal age. The non disjunction occurs in the maternal gametes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy in a baby born with shoulder dystocia who suffered...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy in a baby born with shoulder dystocia who suffered a brachial plexus injury. Which of the following nerve roots are likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum during vaginal delivery. About 10% of babies with shoulder dystocia will suffer a brachial plexus injury, the most common one being Erb-Duchenne palsy. In Erb’s palsy, the upper nerve roots C5 and C6 are damaged due to excessive widening of the angle between the head and the shoulder. This causing temporary paralysis in the affected arm whereby the infant will present with its hand hanging limp by his side, internal rotation of the forearm, plus wrist and finger flexion. This sign is called the ‘waiter’s tip hand’. The palsy usually resolves spontaneously in a large proportion of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy. She also has a past medical history of a migraine. What among the following will be the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codein and promethazine

      Explanation:

      This patient should be given promethazine and codeine as she presents with severe migraine.

      Usage of metoclopramide is safe during pregnancy and for increasing effectiveness it can be added to paracetamol. However, because of its risk for causing extrapyramidal effects it should be used only as a second-line therapy and Promethazine should be considered as the first line choice of remedy. So the answer is Codeine and promethazine.

      Opioid pain relievers such as codeine are not been reported of having any associated with increased birth defects or miscarriage, but its long-term use can lead to dependency in mother and withdrawal signs in the baby.

      Paracetamol alone or combined with codeine is not found to be useful in controlling vomiting.

      It is advised to completely avoid dihydroergotamine and the triptans throughout pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - The ureters receive autonomic supply from which spinal segments? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ureters receive autonomic supply from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T11-L2

      Explanation:

      The ureters receive innervation by a number of nerve plexuses. The nerves supplying the ureters originate from spinal segments T11 to L2. When you think about ureteric colic giving classic ‘loin to groin’ pain it is because the pain is referred to these dermatomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Fibrinogen is activated by thrombin which converts it into fibrin which forms a mesh to trap red blood cells and form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception

      Explanation:

      Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Oxytocin binds to what receptor type? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (13/22) 59%
Gynaecology (5/9) 56%
Clinical Management (7/13) 54%
Epidemiology (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (9/9) 100%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Physiology (7/8) 88%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Embryology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/2) 50%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed