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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: There is axillary freckling
Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is 'breathing strangely' at night for the past few months now. This is associated with frequent and loud snoring. Furthermore, he seems to have sleep disturbances due to these nocturnal breathing difficulties. This, they feel, is reflected as daytime somnolence in the boy.Clinical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar hypertrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion
Explanation:The most appropriate next step in the management would be to refer the patient for an ENT opinion. Rationale:This child has clinical signs of adenotonsillar hypertrophy, symptoms of persistent snoring and features of obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). Suspected OSA warrants referral to an ENT specialist. Other options:- Capillary blood gas: The investigation consists of overnight oxygen saturation monitoring or polysomnography.- Chest X-ray: A chest x-ray is not indicated.- Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is the first-line treatment for tonsillitis. However, with a history of several months and no suggestion of fever or sore throat, acute tonsillitis is unlikely.- Weight loss advice: Obesity is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) amongst other health problems. The child’s weight should be highlighted and advice and support for weight loss provided however referral to ENT is warranted for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his sleep. Which one of the following is not a cause of neonatal seizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus (BNSM) is a disorder commonly mistaken for seizures during the new-born period. It is characterized by myoclonic lightninglike jerks of the extremities that exclusively occur during sleep; it is not correlated with epilepsy.Causes of neonatal seizures:Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy disrupts the ATP-dependent sodium-potassium pump and appears to cause excessive depolarization.Intracranial haemorrhage: occurs more frequently in premature than in term infants. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is more common in term infants. This type of haemorrhage occurs frequently and is not clinically significant. Typically, infants with subarachnoid haemorrhage appear remarkably well. Metabolic disturbances include hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia. Less frequent metabolic disorders, such as inborn errors of metabolism, are seen more commonly in infants who are older than 72 hours. Typically, they may be seen after the infant starts feeding.Intracranial infections (which should be ruled out vigorously) that are important causes of neonatal seizures include meningitis, encephalitis (including herpes encephalitis), toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. The common bacterial pathogens include Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae.Cerebral malformationsBenign neonatal seizures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition of speech and developmental delay. She babbles but does not speak any identifiable words. Her receptive language is relatively preserved but she is severely delayed in all developmental domains and is not yet walking. On examination, she is an excitable girl who laughs frequently and is keen to crawl around the room and engage in social interaction. Her eye contact is good. She makes flapping movements of the hands when she is excited. Her purposeful upper limb movements are rather ataxic. What is the most likely explanation for this child's speech and language delay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angelman syndrome
Explanation:Angelman syndrome is a rare genetic and neurological disorder caused by deletion or abnormal expression of the UBE3A gene and characterized by severe developmental delay and learning disabilities; absence or near absence of speech; inability to coordinate voluntary movements (ataxia); tremulousness with jerky movements of the arms and legs and a distinct behavioural pattern characterized by a happy disposition and unprovoked episodes of laughter and smiling. Although those with the syndrome may be unable to speak, many gradually learn to communicate through other means such as gesturing. In addition, children may have enough receptive language ability to understand simple forms of language communication. Additional symptoms may occur including seizures, sleep disorders and feeding difficulties. Some children with Angelman syndrome may have distinctive facial features but most facial features reflect the normal parental traits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life; it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs; the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteriesA balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GnRH stimulation test
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refractive error
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. On examination, palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign
Explanation:Based on the findings presented, the sign elicited is Rovsing’s sign.Rovsing’s sign:It is a sign suggestive of appendicitis. A positive sign is determined when palpation in the left lower quadrant of a patient’s abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.Other options:- Murphy’s sign is positive in gallbladder inflammation. With the upper border of the examiner’s hand in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen under the rib cage, the patient is asked to inhale. Inhalation causes the gallbladder to descend, which catches on the fingers, causing pain.- Cullen’s sign is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis and describes the bruising around the umbilicus.- Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome. The examiner’s fingers tap the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, which causes paraesthesia over the distribution of the median nerve.- Battles’ sign describes bruising behind the ear, suggesting a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 x 1/25 = 2/75) x 1/4 = 1/150.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes odds ratios?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another
Explanation:Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case-control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin
Explanation:Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mongolian spot
Explanation:Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5 days ago, she was taken to her GP with lower abdominal pain and leukocytes 3+ on urine dipstick. She was treated with trimethoprim. On examination, she is found to have a low-grade pyrexia, a CRP of 254 mg/L, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. She is able to consume both solids and liquids. Based on the clinical scenario, what is the probable diagnosis and most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This is an appendix mass and intravenous antibiotics where observation is the initial treatment
Explanation:The most appropriate diagnosis for this patient is appendicular mass. The initial treatment, according to the Ochsner-Sherren regimen recommended by Hamilton Bailey, would be the initiation of intravenous antibiotics.RationaleThe presentation is highly suggestive of appendicular mass. The correct management is broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics such as co-amoxiclav and amikacin plus observation. Conservative management is the preferred treatment as surgical exploration at this stage can result in increased morbidity.The child should be allowed to eat and drink. If there are on-going temperature spikes, signs of obstruction or severe colicky abdominal pain, then surgery is required. The majority of patients respond to conservative management.Other options:- This is a partially treated appendicitis which has formed an appendix mass. Rather than planning appendectomy immediately; Hamilton Bailey recommended interval appendectomy after 6 weeks post-discharge. However, the need for interval appendectomy is still under debate.- Drainage via interventional radiology is not recommended in this patient as it can lead to swinging pyrexia secondary to peritonitis secondary to the collection.- The patient would have high-grade pyrexia and be constitutionally unwell if the patient was a patient of pyelonephritis. The presentation of the patient is more suggestive of appendicular mass.- The history would be more extended with symptoms of weight loss and altered bowel habit if the patient had Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In one of the following situations a child should be investigated further if they aren't:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saying single words with meaning by 18 months
Explanation:If a child is not saying single words with meaning by 18 months it suggests that he or she is not following normal developmental milestones and further investigation is needed. Children are usually expected to be dry by day at the age of 3 years and dry by night at the age of 4 years, however 10% of 5 year old children and 5% of 10 year old children still wet the bed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation:The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6-9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1-3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5-15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey-Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes
Explanation:Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including; atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed
Explanation:By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 30
Incorrect
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6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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