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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps following a prolonged second stage. After a couple of weeks, the patient visits her GP complaining of difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays a limp in her left leg, a numb thigh, weak knee extension, and the absence of patellar reflex. Her right leg appears normal. What nerve has been affected by the forceps delivery?
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:The observed symptoms indicate that the femoral nerve has been affected. Although nerve damage during instrumental delivery is uncommon, it can occur during challenging deliveries and mid-cavity forceps use. The table below outlines the nerves that may be impacted by forceps and the corresponding clinical manifestations.
Nerve Clinical features
Femoral nerve Weakness in extending the knee, absence of the patellar reflex, and numbness in the thigh
Lumbosacral trunk Weakness in dorsiflexing the ankle and numbness in the calf and foot.Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy
The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.
Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.
The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her shoulder. The doctor conducted a thorough examination of her shoulder and observed that she was unable to abduct her shoulder while standing with her arm flat against her body. However, the doctor was able to passively abduct her shoulder during the first 20 degrees, and she was able to fully abduct it. Which muscle is likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The shoulder joint is stabilized by a group of muscles known as the rotator cuffs. To remember them, you can use the following order: Subscapularis, which is located on the front of your chest and assists with internal rotation of the shoulder; Supraspinatus, which runs parallel to your deltoid on top of your shoulder and is necessary for the first 20° of shoulder abduction before the deltoid takes over; and Infraspinatus, which is located on the upper back and helps with external rotation of the shoulder.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Each muscle has a specific function that contributes to the overall movement of the shoulder.
The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is also the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each rotator cuff muscle is important in preventing injuries and maintaining shoulder health. By strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises, individuals can improve their shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hand pain that worsens with activity and towards the end of the day. He has a medical history of psoriasis and is not currently taking any medications. During the examination, the doctor notes tender bony swellings in three DIP joints on both hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The presence of Heberden’s nodes, which are bony swellings at the DIP joints, is a characteristic feature of osteoarthritis in the hand. Pain that worsens with activity, rather than rest, is also more indicative of OA than inflammatory arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis can cause swelling of the DIP joints, but the swelling is typically boggy rather than bony, and the pain tends to be worse in the morning and improve with activity. Reactive arthritis is unlikely to cause a DIP predominant arthritis, as it typically presents as a large joint lower limb oligoarthritis, and there is no recent history of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis does not typically affect the DIP joints.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with a 2 year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to your clinic with an acute flare up of her symptoms. The patient reports increased pain in her joints, general fatigue, and difficulty performing her usual daily activities due to swelling and stiffness in her hands. She mentions experiencing high levels of stress at work and concerns about her financial stability. However, she is otherwise healthy and has normal physical observations. Currently, she is receiving methotrexate 7.5mg intramuscularly weekly. What is the most effective treatment option for managing this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular methylprednisolone acetate
Explanation:Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone acetate and triamcinolone acetonide, are effective short-term treatment options that can be administered via intra-articular injection, intramuscular injection, or orally. Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) like methotrexate may take several months to become effective, so they are not suitable for treating acute flare-ups. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen can be used for a short period to reduce pain and inflammation, but their potential side effects and risks must be considered. Paracetamol can help with pain relief, but it does not address the inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis and is therefore not the most effective treatment option.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP who advised her to go to the emergency department due to abnormalities found on her blood tests during her annual well woman check-up. She has a medical history of systemic sclerosis and uses topical emollients on her hands. She denies any allergies, is an ex-smoker, and does not consume alcohol. Her blood results are as follows:
- Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
- Platelets 151 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 11.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 164 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 30 ml/min (>90)
Upon observation, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is high. In the right arm, it is 187/95 mmHg and in the left arm is 191/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:When systemic sclerosis leads to kidney problems, hypertension and AKI are common symptoms. The preferred treatment for this is ACE inhibitors, with lisinopril being the appropriate choice. In severe cases of sclerodermic renal crisis, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia may also occur. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension, while bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also be used for this purpose. Doxazosin, on the other hand, is an α blocker used to treat hypertension.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of joint pain and stiffness in his fingers and wrists for the past 6 weeks. He is a pianist in a local orchestra and has noticed a decline in his performance due to his symptoms. On examination, there are visible deformities in his metacarpophalangeal joints with palpable tenderness, and his wrists are slightly swollen. He has a history of mild childhood asthma but has been otherwise healthy. There are no skin or nail changes. Based on the likely diagnosis, which of the following is associated with the poorest prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a symmetrical, polyarthritis that is characterized by early morning joint pain and stiffness. A positive prognosis is associated with negative anti-CCP antibodies and negative rheumatoid factor. When anti-CCP antibodies are present, they are usually seen in conjunction with positive rheumatoid factor, which is a strong predictor of early transformation from transient to persistent synovitis. A gradual onset of symptoms is also linked to a poor prognosis for rheumatoid arthritis, rather than a sudden onset. Additionally, female gender is associated with a worse prognosis for rheumatoid arthritis, while male gender is not. Finally, HLA-B27 is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis, but rather with seronegative spondyloarthropathies like psoriatic and reactive arthritis.
Prognostic Features of Rheumatoid Arthritis
A number of factors have been identified as predictors of a poor prognosis in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These include being rheumatoid factor positive, having anti-CCP antibodies, presenting with poor functional status, showing early erosions on X-rays, having extra-articular features such as nodules, possessing the HLA DR4 gene, and experiencing an insidious onset. While there is some discrepancy regarding the association between gender and prognosis, both the American College of Rheumatology and the recent NICE guidelines suggest that female gender is linked to a poorer prognosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these prognostic features in order to provide appropriate management and support for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient reports a constant 'funny-bone' feeling in her left elbow, along with tingling in the pinky and ring fingers. The symptoms intensify when the elbow is flexed for extended periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:
- Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
- Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 70 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and difficulty standing up from her chair for the past four weeks. She reports experiencing eyelid swelling and feeling generally unwell for the past two months, and now has trouble walking and grooming herself. Upon examination, the doctor observes reduced strength in her hips and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around her eyes, and a thick red rash on her knuckles. The doctor suspects a rheumatological condition and refers her for further testing. What urgent additional investigation is required, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignancy screen
Explanation:Patients who are newly diagnosed with dermatomyositis require an urgent screening for malignancy. The presence of proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, and Gottron’s papules are indicative of dermatomyositis. It is important to investigate for underlying cancer, with common malignancies including lung, breast, ovarian, prostate, and colorectal. A malignancy screen may involve a chest x-ray, mammography, CA-125, pelvic ultrasound (in females), prostate-specific antigen (in males), faecal occult blood testing, and potentially a CT chest/abdomen/pelvis. Basic blood tests such as serum corrected calcium and LFTs should also be done as a quick screen for bone and liver metastases. Fundoscopy is not necessary in the absence of ocular symptoms. A pregnancy test is not required for this patient due to her age. A renal biopsy is only necessary if there is rheumatological renal disease or if systemic lupus erythematosus is suspected. However, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with dermatomyositis.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting her left ankle while hiking in a mountainous national park. She has no significant medical history. X-rays were taken and the radiologist's report states that there is a minimally displaced, transverse fracture distally through the lateral malleolus, below the level of the talar dome, without talar shift. The medial malleolus is unaffected. What is the most suitable immediate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allow weight bearing as tolerated in a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot
Explanation:According to the radiologist’s report, the patient has a stable Weber A fracture of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) that is minimally displaced and located below the tibiofibular syndesmosis. As a result, immobilization in a back slab is unnecessary, and reduction is not required. RICE treatment is not recommended as it does not provide adequate immobilization, which can be an effective form of pain relief. Instead, a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot is the appropriate management option as it allows weight-bearing while providing immobilization. Urgent surgical intervention is not necessary in this case due to the fracture’s stability and minimal displacement.
Ankle Fractures and their Classification
Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.
Management of Ankle Fractures
The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fat embolism
Explanation:This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.
Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment
Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.
Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old female complains of stiffness and pain in her pelvic and shoulder girdle, along with painful mastication. She consumes around 12 units of alcohol per week and takes atorvastatin and amlodipine. Her ESR is found to be 90mm/hour. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The symptoms and high ESR levels suggest that the patient may have polymyalgia rheumatica, with the added indication of painful mastication pointing towards possible temporal arthritis. Immediate treatment with high doses of steroids is crucial. To distinguish between polymyalgia rheumatica and statin-induced myopathy, ESR levels are typically measured. A significantly elevated ESR level would indicate polymyalgia rheumatica, while a normal ESR level would suggest statin myopathy.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for MRI
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of spinal stenosis and rule out other potential causes like metastatic disease, an MRI is necessary for this presentation. The lower back pain that worsens with walking is a typical symptom of spinal stenosis.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the right side, affecting the face, arm, and leg. During the examination, you observe right-sided hemiparesis, aphasia, and a right homonymous hemianopia. The patient has a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, pulmonary embolisms, and deep vein thrombosis. The blood test results show a prolonged APTT. What could be the probable reason for the stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of antiphospholipid syndrome, which can be confirmed by a positive anti-Cardiolipin antibody test. It is crucial to keep in mind that hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity can lead to strokes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a type of thrombophilia disorder that causes hypercoagulation and a higher likelihood of forming clots, both arterial and venous. This increases the risk of ischaemic strokes.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pain and stiffness in both knees and hands for a few months. She also reports swelling in her left index finger. Apart from hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine, and a cough that is currently being investigated, she is in good health and has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor notices dactylitis in her left index finger, as well as general pain and limited mobility in her fingers. X-rays of her hands reveal erosions in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint on both sides. What diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:The presence of DIP joint swelling and dactylitis in inflammatory arthritis suggests a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. Although there is not always a clear correlation between psoriatic arthritis and cutaneous psoriasis, arthritic symptoms often appear before skin lesions. While there may be some overlap with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of DIP joint disease and dactylitis are more indicative of psoriatic arthritis. Gout is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents as acute and monoarticular or oligoarticular, without the other symptoms seen here. Osteoarthritis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents asymmetrically in larger joints and does not typically present with dactylitis or the findings seen on X-ray. Rheumatoid arthritis is a possibility, but a blood test for anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) should be performed to confirm the diagnosis, as these antibodies are highly specific to rheumatoid arthritis and are usually absent in psoriatic arthritis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the hospital with a neck of femur fracture after slipping at her local supermarket. The orthopaedic SHO takes her medical history, which reveals that she has a history of ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. She went through menopause at 55 and was an avid jogger until the fall. Following surgical management of the fracture, a DEXA scan is performed, which shows a T score of -2.9, indicating osteoporosis. What aspect of the patient's medical history is most strongly linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:The inclusion of rheumatoid arthritis in the FRAX assessment tool highlights its significance as a risk factor for osteoporosis. This connection is likely due to various factors, such as increased use of corticosteroids, limited mobility caused by joint pain, and the impact of systemic inflammation on bone remodelling. Conversely, engaging in high-impact exercise, experiencing menopause later in life, and being of black ethnicity are all associated with a lower risk of developing osteoporosis. Additionally, recent research suggests that osteoporosis may actually increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease, rather than the other way around.
Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.
There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing four consecutive miscarriages. Her GP ordered routine blood tests which revealed a prolonged APTT and the presence of lupus anticoagulant immunoglobulins. The patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and you recommend long-term pharmacological thromboprophylaxis. However, she has no history of venous or arterial clots. What would be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:For patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have not experienced a thrombosis before, the recommended thromboprophylaxis is low-dose aspirin. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is not advised as studies have shown a higher incidence of clots in antiphospholipid patients on DOACs compared to warfarin. Low-molecular-weight heparin is not recommended for long-term use as it is administered subcutaneously. Warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is appropriate only for patients who have previously suffered from venous or arterial clots.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 3 chronic kidney disease presents with complaints of back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. His GP has referred him for further evaluation. Upon examination, the patient is lying on his left side with his hips slightly flexed. Attempting to palpate his abdomen causes pain in his left hip and back. The patient experiences increased pain when asked to flex his hip against resistance or hyperextend his hip. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.3 ÂșC, heart rate 95/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 140/82 mmHg. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV antibiotics and percutaneous drainage
Explanation:In cases of suspected iliopsoas abscess, antibiotics alone are unlikely to provide a cure. If there is a high clinical suspicion of a retrocaecal appendix, urgent laparoscopy and IV antibiotics may be necessary. However, this condition typically presents with acute pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen upon hip extension. Neoplastic spinal cord compression may require oral dexamethasone and an oncological review, as it initially presents with back pain and can progress to neurological deficits.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a lump on the back of his right thigh that has been increasing in size for the past four months. The patient reports that the lump has become excruciatingly painful over the last two weeks. Upon ordering a radiograph, the results show a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right femur with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a malignant tumour occurring in the diaphysis of the pelvis and long bones, which mainly affects children and adolescents and presents with severe pain and an onion skin appearance on X-ray, is Ewing’s sarcoma. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein being a key finding. Chondrosarcoma, osteoma, and osteochondroma are unlikely diagnoses as they present differently and affect different age groups.
Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. Despite a smooth recovery and increased mobility, she complains of difficulty in dorsiflexing her foot while walking. Based on this information, which structure is most likely to have been affected during the TKA procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis
Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and while obesity is often thought to be a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.
For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.
Post-operative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises. Walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.
Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of joint pain in her left hand and a 'sausage-like finger'. She reports her only medication is prescription coal tar shampoo.
She is tender over the left distal interphalangeal joints with mildly swollen fingers. Her left index finger is diffusely swollen.
Observations show a heart rate of 82 bpm, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, a temperature of 36.8ÂșC, and 98% oxygen saturation on room air.
She has an x-ray of her hand performed.
What would be the most likely findings on imaging?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Periarticular erosions with bone resorption
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of swelling and pain in the distal interphalangeal joints and dactylitis suggest a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. This is further supported by her use of a prescription coal tar shampoo for psoriatic lesions on her scalp. Psoriatic joint disease can cause a distinct X-ray appearance known as a pencil-in-cup deformity, characterized by periarticular erosions and bone resorption.
In contrast, erosions with overhanging edges, also known as rat-bite erosions, are associated with gout and tophi, typically affecting the first metatarsal joint in the foot. Joint effusion may be present in the early stages of septic arthritis, which should be ruled out for any hot, painful swollen joint. However, the patient’s lack of systemic illness and unchanged swelling over time make septic arthritis less likely.
Osteoarthritis, a non-inflammatory degenerative arthritis that worsens with age, does not typically present with dactylitis and is characterized by X-ray features such as loss of joint space, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 5-week history of cough, weight loss, and occasional haemoptysis. Upon chest X-ray, fibronodular opacities are observed and sputum acid-fast bacilli smear is positive, leading to a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The patient is prescribed a combination of medications. However, he later experiences malar rash, arthralgia, and myalgia. Blood tests reveal positive antinuclear and anti-histone antibodies, but negative anti-dsDNA antibodies. Which medication is most likely responsible for these new symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid is the tuberculosis antibiotic that can lead to drug-induced lupus. Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some symptoms with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but not all. It usually goes away once the patient stops taking the medication. Anti-histone antibodies are typically positive in drug-induced lupus, but less common in SLE. On the other hand, anti-dsDNA antibodies are present in more than half of SLE cases, but very rarely in drug-induced lupus. Procainamide and hydralazine are the most common drugs that cause drug-induced lupus, but isoniazid is the most likely cause from the list of tuberculosis antibiotics (and pyridoxine). Isoniazid is also known to cause peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis. Ethambutol is another tuberculosis antibiotic that does not cause drug-induced lupus, but can cause optic neuritis. Pyrazinamide is another tuberculosis antibiotic that does not cause drug-induced lupus, but can cause gout and hepatitis. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is given to all patients taking isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy. It does not cause drug-induced lupus.
Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which antibody is the most specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
Explanation:The most specific test for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis among patients is the presence of anti-Scl-70 antibodies.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old businessman came to the hospital with a low-grade fever, blood-streaked sputum and a dry cough that had been persisting for 7 weeks. He had been travelling extensively in India, staying in cheap and unsanitary accommodations. Upon further testing, he was diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on appropriate antibiotics. However, when he visited your outpatient clinic two weeks later, he complained of joint pain, fatigue, and a new rash that was limited to his face and had a butterfly shape. You suspect that one of the drugs he is taking is causing drug-induced lupus. Which drug is responsible for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to a rheumatologist by her GP due to complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and is known to have an allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests revealed a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, methotrexate, and sarilumab are not contraindicated for this patient. These drugs may be considered as first-line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis, depending on the patient’s disease activity and response to other medications. It is important to note that sulfasalazine should be avoided in patients with a sulfa drug allergy.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As an FY2 in the Emergency Department, you have assessed a 65-year-old female patient who is experiencing urticaria and breathing difficulties following a recent change in medication. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, and refractory rheumatoid arthritis. She is also known to have allergies to pollen, aspirin, and plaster adhesives. Which medication is the most likely cause of her current presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Patients who have a hypersensitivity to aspirin may also experience an allergic reaction to sulfasalazine. This is important to note as sulfasalazine is a DMARD used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, particularly in cases where other treatments have not been effective. The patient in this case has refractory rheumatoid arthritis, indicating that the recent medication change is likely a rheumatic agent.
While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema and difficulty breathing, it is not typically associated with urticaria. This is because drug-induced angioedema is usually caused by bradykinin, not histamine.
Cetirizine is an antihistamine that can provide relief for symptoms such as urticaria, histamine-mediated angioedema, and anaphylactic reactions.
Omeprazole is a PPI that is used to treat conditions like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease by suppressing acidic gastric secretions. While skin reactions can occur with the use of omeprazole, bronchospasm is considered rare or very rare according to the BNF. In this case, the most likely culprit for the patient’s allergic reaction is sulfasalazine due to their known aspirin allergy.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is undergoing investigation for symmetrical polyarthritis that is widespread. She reports experiencing a blue tinge in her fingers during cold weather. During examination, a prominent rash is observed over her nose and cheeks, but not in her nasolabial folds. Her blood tests show positive results for anti-dsDNA. She is advised to take a drug that is described as a 'disease-modifying' drug. What kind of regular monitoring will she need while undergoing treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual acuity testing
Explanation:This woman has classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), including a malar rash, polyarthritis, and Raynaud’s syndrome. A positive blood test for anti-dsDNA confirms the diagnosis. The main treatment for SLE is hydroxychloroquine, along with NSAIDs and steroids. However, there is a significant risk of severe and permanent retinopathy associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends monitoring for retinopathy at baseline and every 6-12 months while on treatment. Visual acuity testing is a reasonable way to monitor for this. Routine monitoring of calcium levels, hearing, liver function, and neurological deficits of the limbs is not necessary as there is no evidence of hydroxychloroquine affecting these areas.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female complains of fatigue and widespread pain for the past six months, which worsens with stress or exposure to cold. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points throughout her body, but all other findings are normal. Despite normal results from autoimmune, inflammatory, and thyroid function tests, what treatment is most likely to be effective for her probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Managing Fibromyalgia: A Multidisciplinary Approach
Fibromyalgia is a syndrome that causes widespread pain throughout the body, particularly in specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30-50. Other features include lethargy, cognitive impairment, sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is clinical and based on the presence of tender points on the body. Management of fibromyalgia is often difficult and requires a tailored, multidisciplinary approach. While there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide practice, consensus guidelines from the European League against Rheumatism (EULAR) and a BMJ review suggest that aerobic exercise, cognitive behavioural therapy, and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline may be helpful.
Managing fibromyalgia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the physical, emotional, and psychological aspects of the condition. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, a combination of treatments can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Aerobic exercise has the strongest evidence base and can help reduce pain and fatigue. Cognitive behavioural therapy can help patients develop coping strategies and improve their mental health. Medications such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline can also be effective in managing pain and other symptoms. However, it is important to note that treatment should be tailored to the individual patient and may require a trial-and-error approach. With a multidisciplinary approach, patients with fibromyalgia can find relief and improve their overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 28-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with right-sided abdominal pain. The pain radiates to the anterior hip and is relieved by flexing her hips to touch knees to chest. Sarah denies any recent trauma. She has a history of ulcerative colitis and takes regular mesalamine.
On examination, her temperature is 38.0ÂșC. She mobilises across the room with a limp and has pain on extension and internal rotation of her right hip.
Bloods show:
Lab test Result Reference range
WBC 14.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
ESR 18 mm/hr < (15)
CRP 12 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most appropriate investigation at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:When a psoas abscess is suspected, CT abdomen is the recommended diagnostic test. Tom has presented with right-sided abdominal pain that is relieved by hip flexion, along with a positive psoas sign and a low-grade fever, which are indicative of psoas abscess. Although MRI has a similar sensitivity to contrast CT, it is less accessible. Retrocaecal appendicitis is less likely based on Tom’s history and examination. While abdominal ultrasound is preferred for investigating appendicitis in children and pregnant women, abdominopelvic CT is preferred for other adults. Hip x-ray is not the most useful test in this case, as osteomyelitis or avascular necrosis are less likely based on Tom’s clinical presentation. Colonoscopy is not the most appropriate test to order next, as his symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a flare-up of his Crohn’s disease.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and stiffness that has persisted for over 3 months. He denies any history of injury. The patient reports that his symptoms are worse in the morning but improve with exercise. Routine blood tests were normal except for an ESR of 30 mm/hour (normal range: 0-15) and a CRP of 15 mg/L (normal range: <10). A plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints reveals erosions, sclerosis, and joint space widening, leading to a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exercise and NSAIDs
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is primarily managed through exercise and NSAIDs. NSAIDs are effective in relieving symptoms and preventing functional limitations, while regular exercise, including postural training, range of motion exercises, stretching, and recreational activities like swimming, can help reduce and prevent functional limitations.
To measure disease activity, the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score (ASDAS) is used, which categorizes disease activity as inactive, low, high, or very high. If a patient has persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments with NSAIDs, anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) therapy may be considered. However, the disease activity must be at least high (â„2.1) on ASDAS to warrant biologic therapy.
Glucocorticoids are not recommended for patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Methotrexate may be prescribed if conventional treatment with NSAIDs does not control symptoms, specifically for persistent peripheral arthritis.
In severe cases where the disease has progressed, surgery may be necessary. Hip and spine surgery may be beneficial for select patients with persistent pain or severe limitation in mobility, neurologic impairment, or severe flexion deformities.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits his GP complaining of numbness in the lateral three and a half digits and atrophy of the thenar muscles. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Phalen’s test is utilized for evaluating carpal tunnel syndrome by holding the patient’s wrist in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 seconds. A positive result is indicated by numbness in the median nerve distribution.
This scenario is typical of carpal tunnel syndrome, which affects the thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral three and a half digits. The compression of the median nerve during Phalen’s test leads to the aforementioned presentation.
In contrast, cubital tunnel syndrome results from ulnar nerve compression and causes hypothenar muscle wasting and numbness in the medial one and a half digits. Ulnar nerve injury leads to loss of sensation in the medial one and a half digit, while radial nerve palsy typically presents with wrist drop and loss of sensation in the first dorsal web-space.
Finally, radial ganglion is characterized by a mass near the base of the thumb, usually above the wrist.
Nerve Signs for Assessing Ulnar Nerve Palsy and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Nerve signs are important diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Two commonly used nerve signs are Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test. Froment’s sign is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy by testing the function of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger, which is then pulled away. If the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it indicates ulnar nerve palsy.
Phalen’s test is used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign. The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion, and the test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution. Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by tapping the median nerve at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.
In summary, nerve signs are useful diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test are two commonly used nerve signs that can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for evaluation. He has a history of multiple fractures, delayed dental development, hearing impairment, and abnormal bone growth. The healthcare provider suspects osteogenesis imperfecta. What laboratory findings are expected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal adjusted calcium, normal PTH, normal ALP and normal PO4
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, typically presents with normal levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4. This group of disorders affects collagen metabolism, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures. The mildest and most common form is type 1, which is usually diagnosed in childhood and may present with blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with raised adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal or raised ALP levels, and low PO4 levels. Hypoparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium, high PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and variable PO4 levels. Malignant PTH-related protein, which can occur in certain cancers such as squamous cell lung cancer, may present with raised adjusted calcium, low PTH levels, raised ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels, with normal ALP levels also possible.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.
During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/ÎŒL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.
Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonniĂšre deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ÂșC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.
Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.
Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to your ward following a vertebral fracture sustained while twisting in her car seat. The orthopaedic team is managing this conservatively. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Currently, she is taking amlodipine and omeprazole. She previously took alendronic acid but stopped due to severe reflux. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab are viable options. However, if the patient’s eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is the preferred choice. Alendronic acid should be avoided due to the patient’s history of severe reflux during previous use. Denosumab is a novel treatment for osteoporosis that inhibits the development of osteoclasts by blocking RANKL. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and is also effective in preventing skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors. Cinacalcet is not indicated for the management of osteoporosis or pathological fractures, but rather for hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the treatment of osteoporosis in older postmenopausal women due to its unfavorable risk-benefit ratio.
Denosumab: A New Treatment for Osteoporosis
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. It is administered as a subcutaneous injection every six months at a dose of 60mg. A larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors.
When it comes to managing osteoporosis, oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment, with alendronate being the preferred option. If alendronate is not tolerated, an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate or etidronate may be used. Next-line medications are only started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria are met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were previously recommended as next-line drugs, but due to safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate, denosumab is becoming increasingly popular.
Denosumab is generally well-tolerated, with dyspnea and diarrhea being the most common side effects. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should look out for patients complaining of unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is a promising new treatment for osteoporosis that may be particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates or who have other risk factors that make them unsuitable for these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture. The fracture is treated with a dynamic hip screw (DHS). The physiotherapist on the ward asks for clarification on the patient's weight bearing status.
What guidance would you provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full weight bearing immediately post-op
Explanation:Hip fracture surgery aims to enable immediate weight bearing to reduce complications associated with immobility. The BOA recommends unrestricted weight bearing to shorten hospital stays and improve patient compliance. The dynamic hip screw requires weight bearing for proper compression of the fracture site.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas that appeared two weeks ago. She was diagnosed with primary tuberculosis four months ago and is currently undergoing treatment with rifampicin and isoniazid. What antibodies are expected to be present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-histone antibodies is associated with drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely cause of the symmetrical annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas in this patient who is currently taking isoniazid. Anti-Ro antibodies are not relevant as they are commonly associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, while anti-centromere antibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which is less likely in this patient given her age and clinical presentation.
Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents with lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. There are no signs of trauma or systemic symptoms, and his clinical and neurological examinations are normal. You advise him to stay active and provide him with a list of exercises to do at home. However, he requests pain relief to help him get through the day. What is the best initial medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral naproxen
Explanation:The 2016 NICE guidelines suggest considering oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the management of low back pain, while taking into account potential differences in toxicity for the gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal systems, as well as the individual’s risk factors, including age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs for low back pain, appropriate clinical assessment, ongoing monitoring of risk factors, and the use of gastroprotective treatment should be considered. It is recommended to prescribe oral NSAIDs for low back pain at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time. Weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) should only be considered for managing acute low back pain if an NSAID is contraindicated, not tolerated, or has been ineffective. Paracetamol alone should not be offered for managing low back pain.
Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain
Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.
Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.
Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.
In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the deficiency associated with Marfan's syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that affects multiple systems including musculoskeletal, visual, and cardiovascular, in individuals of all ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrillin
Explanation:A mutation in the fibrillin-1 protein is responsible for causing Marfan’s syndrome. This protein is coded by the Marfan syndrome gene (MSF1) located on chromosome 15. Connective tissue contains fibrillin, which is a glycoprotein. Synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid, while elastin is an extracellular matrix protein found in connective tissue. Laminin is another extracellular matrix protein that forms part of the basement membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents to the emergency department with feverish symptoms and a painful right knee. He had a Chlamydia trachomatis infection two weeks ago. His vital signs are as follows:
Respiratory rate 17 breath/min
Heart rate 84 beats/min
Blood pressure 122/76 mmHg
Temperature 37.3ÂșC
Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
What is the most likely finding in a synovial fluid sample taken from this patient's knee?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sterile synovial fluid with a high white blood cell count
Explanation:The correct answer is synovial fluid that is sterile but has a high white blood cell count. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a type of seronegative spondyloarthritis that typically affects the lower limbs and occurs after a gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. The condition is aseptic, meaning that no bacteria are present in the synovial fluid, but it can cause an increase in white blood cells, particularly polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Chlamydia trachomatis is an incorrect answer because while it may be the cause of reactive arthritis, the condition itself is aseptic. Staphylococcus aureus is also an incorrect answer because it is more commonly associated with septic arthritis, which is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms or test results. Negatively birefringent crystals are commonly seen in gout, while positively birefringent crystals are associated with calcium pyrophosphate deposition (pseudogout).
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.
Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female complains of dry eyes, dry mouth, arthralgia and fatigue for the past 4 months. During examination, there is conjunctival injection, reduced salivary pool, dry mucous membranes and oral ulceration. The Schirmer's test is positive. Which of the following tests is the most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Ro / Anti-La antibodies
Explanation:The symptoms observed and a positive Schirmer’s test indicate the possibility of Sjögren’s syndrome. The presence of anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It is an autoimmune disorder that can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The onset of the condition usually occurs around ten years after the initial onset of the primary disease. Sjogren’s syndrome is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with this condition have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, check for hypergammaglobulinaemia, and low C4. Nearly 50% of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome test positive for rheumatoid factor, while 70% test positive for ANA. Additionally, 70% of patients with primary Sjogren’s syndrome have anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and 30% have anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
The management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears to alleviate dryness. Pilocarpine may also be used to stimulate saliva production. Understanding the symptoms and management of Sjogren’s syndrome is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure proper treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male presents with painful colour changes of his hands precipitated by cold. He also reports difficulty swallowing and has noticed tightness of his skin especially on his face and his fingers.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of scleroderma, and a detection of anti-centromere antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a one-sided headache on his left side and blurry vision in his left eye. The pain extends to his jaw, especially when he chews. He has been experiencing fatigue, muscle pain, and night sweats for the past few weeks. What medical conditions would you anticipate in his medical history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Temporal arthritis frequently manifests in individuals with PMR.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful swollen knee that started 1 day ago. Upon examination, his right knee is warm to the touch, diffusely swollen, and erythematosus. There is pain on both active and passive movement, and flexion and extension are limited due to pain.
Observations show a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99%, blood pressure of 131/86 mmHg, heart rate of 68 beats per minute, and a temperature of 38.1ÂșC.
Blood tests have been sent off for cultures and the results are pending.
What is the most likely causative organism for this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. It is important to consider septic arthritis as a possible diagnosis when a joint appears red, hot, and swollen. While Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause in sexually active young adults, it is less likely in a 54-year-old. Salmonella typhimurium is a rare cause, but individuals with sickle cell disease are at higher risk for Salmonella spp septic arthritis. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause in patients with a new prosthetic joint.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sudden exacerbation of her symptoms. She reports bilateral sciatica, left foot drop, perianal paraesthesia, and urinary incontinence over the past 24 hours. What imaging is necessary to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI spine
Explanation:When a patient is suspected to have cauda equina syndrome, it is crucial to conduct an urgent MRI of the spine for investigation. This is the preferred method of investigation to determine the cause of the syndrome. The most common cause is a herniated intravertebral disc that compresses the cauda equina. Other possible causes include primary or metastatic spinal tumors, infections like epidural abscesses, or hematomas. Imaging is necessary to identify the specific pathology causing the syndrome, determine the level of pathology, and guide the appropriate intervention. The article Cauda equina syndrome by Lavy C and Wilson-MacDonald J in BMJ 2009;338:b936 provides further information on this topic.
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of weakness in her thighs and shoulders, making it difficult for her to climb stairs and lift objects. She has also observed a purple rash, particularly on her face and eyelids. During the examination, she has painful and itchy papules on her metacarpophalangeal joints. Which antibody is expected to be positive in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1
Explanation:The presence of the anti-Jo-1 antibody suggests that the patient is likely suffering from dermatomyositis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness in the proximal areas and a blue-purple rash on the face, upper eyelids, and trunk. The papules on the small joints of the hands, known as Gottron papules, are a telltale sign of this condition. While anti-CCP is often positive in rheumatoid arthritis, which causes pain and stiffness in the small joints of the hands and feet, anti-La and anti-Ro are commonly positive in Sjogren’s syndrome, which is characterized by dry mouth and eyes and swelling of the parotid gland.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl with sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department. She has been running a fever for a week and complains of nausea and loss of appetite. In the past 24 hours, she has been experiencing intense pain in her left leg. The initial treatment for a sickle crisis is administered, including oxygen, fluids, morphine, and antibiotics. However, an X-ray reveals osteomyelitis in her leg.
What is the probable causative organism for her osteomyelitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmonella enteritidis
Explanation:Salmonella osteomyelitis is a common occurrence in sickle cell patients.
Among sickle cell patients, Salmonella is the leading cause of osteomyelitis. In contrast, Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause in children. Haemophilus, Group A streptococcus, and Enterococcus are all less prevalent causes of osteomyelitis.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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