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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Weber's test indicates localization to the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an increased alkaline phosphatase level, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease with skull involvement

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient without prior symptoms.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old woman is seen in rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman is seen in rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis. Despite trying various medications, she has not experienced much relief from her symptoms. The rheumatologist decides to prescribe hydroxychloroquine for her.
      What are the potential adverse effects that the patient should be informed about?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is known to have a severe and permanent side effect on the retina, known as ‘bull’s eye retinopathy’, which can result in significant visual loss. Recent studies suggest that this side effect is more common than previously thought, and the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends regular monitoring. While hydroxychloroquine may also cause keratopathy, this is considered less harmful. The other ocular effects listed as options are not associated with hydroxychloroquine.
      Long-term steroid use is known to cause cataracts and open-angle glaucoma.
      While case reports have linked bisphosphonates to scleritis and uveitis, there is limited data on this association. However, these conditions are commonly associated with rheumatological and inflammatory disorders.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old patient presents with an upper limb nerve injury. The patient reports...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with an upper limb nerve injury. The patient reports weak finger abduction and adduction with reduced sensation over the ulnar border of the hand. Clawing of the 4th and 5th digits is observed during examination. The patient experiences worsening of this deformity during recovery before eventually resolving. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Damage to ulnar nerve at the elbow

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of worsening joint pains and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of worsening joint pains and fever over the past 3 weeks. The fever occurs every evening and can reach up to 39.5ºC but subsides by the morning. He experiences pain and swelling in his shoulders, wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints that aggravates with the fever. Although his girlfriend has noticed a salmon-pink rash on his back, no rash is visible during examination. He also reports a persistent sore throat. He denies any weight loss or night sweats and has no significant medical history. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Still's disease

      Explanation:

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old office worker visits the doctor complaining of a painful right elbow....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old office worker visits the doctor complaining of a painful right elbow. He indicates the medial epicondyle of the humerus as the source of pain. Although he cannot recall any previous injury, he reports that the pain worsens when he uses his arm, and it can extend to his forearm. As a result, he has stopped playing tennis. Apart from this, he is healthy and not taking any medications.

      Based on the patient's history, the doctor suspects a specific diagnosis. What finding during the examination would be most indicative of this suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist flexed and supinated

      Correct Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist flexed and pronated

      Explanation:

      Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfers’ elbow, is a condition where the tendons of the wrist flexors become damaged due to repetitive use of these muscles. A patient presenting with pain at the medial epicondyle, such as a golf player, is likely to have this condition. Examination of the patient would reveal worsening symptoms when the wrist is flexed and pronated, as this aggravates the wrist flexor muscles at their common attachment point on the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

      If a patient has a fluctuant swelling over the olecranon process, it suggests olecranon bursitis, which is caused by inflammation of the fluid-filled bursa overlying the olecranon process. This condition would present with swelling, pain, and tenderness over the olecranon process, rather than the medial epicondyle.

      It is incorrect to assume that worsening symptoms would occur with the wrist extended and pronated or extended and supinated in a patient with medial epicondylitis. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, would cause worsening symptoms when the wrist is extended and supinated, as this aggravates the wrist extensors at their insertion point on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

      Understanding Medial Epicondylitis

      Medial epicondylitis, commonly referred to as golfer’s elbow, is a condition characterized by pain and tenderness in the medial epicondyle. This area is located on the inner side of the elbow and is responsible for attaching the forearm muscles to the elbow. The pain is often aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, which are movements commonly used in golf swings and other activities that involve repetitive gripping and twisting motions.

      In addition to pain and tenderness, individuals with medial epicondylitis may also experience numbness or tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar nerve involvement. This nerve runs along the inner side of the elbow and can become compressed or irritated in cases of medial epicondylitis.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and causes of medial epicondylitis can help individuals take steps to prevent and manage this condition. This may include modifying activities that place strain on the elbow, using proper equipment and technique, and seeking medical treatment if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the past 2 months. She describes her jaw as feeling heavy, but there is no clicking or locking, and no changes to her vision or scalp tenderness. She has a history of well-controlled polymyalgia rheumatica and depression, and recalls a medical student mentioning that this could be a side effect of one of her medications. Her current medications include vitamin D and calcium supplements, prednisolone, alendronic acid, and sertraline. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate use

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game over the weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.

      During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noted. He is able to bear weight and move around the room without difficulty. However, his range of motion is restricted due to pain, particularly during external rotation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetabular labral tear

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acetabular Labral Tears

      Acetabular labral tears are a common condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes in the hip joint. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of an injury, while older adults may develop it due to age-related wear and tear. The main symptoms of an acetabular labral tear include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking.
      Treatment options may include physical therapy, medication, or surgery, depending on the severity of the tear and your overall health. With proper care and management, most people with acetabular labral tears can find relief from their symptoms and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing extremely cold and white fingers at random times of the day, especially in winter and outdoors. During the examination, the doctor observes small white deposits on his arms, a large number of spider naevi on his cheeks, and thickened skin on the top of his hands, making it difficult for him to straighten out his fingers. Currently, the color and temperature of his fingers are normal. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following symptoms is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysphagia

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits all the symptoms of CREST syndrome except for dysphagia caused by oesophageal dysmotility. These symptoms include calcinosis (white deposits), Raynaud’s phenomenon (cold, white fingertips triggered by cold weather), sclerodactyly (thickened skin on top of hands and inability to straighten fingers), and telangiectasia (excessive number of spider naevi). Gottron’s papules and dilated capillary loops are characteristic of dermatomyositis, while limited scleroderma does not typically involve internal organs, making glomerulonephritis unlikely. Although Sjogren’s syndrome can overlap with other connective tissue diseases, the patient’s lack of dysphagia makes this diagnosis less likely than CREST syndrome.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of their wrist and forearm. During examination, you observe weak flexion of all digits, including the thumb. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C8 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Unlike named nerve pathology, radiculopathy follows a dermatomal distribution. This means that the pattern of sensory loss cannot be explained by a single named nerve. For example, while the ulnar nerve supplies the ulnar border of the hand and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve supplies the medial forearm, these areas are actually covered by the C8 dermatome.

      It’s important to note that thumb flexion would not be affected in ulnar nerve lesions, and carpal tunnel syndrome would only affect flexion of the thumb without producing this specific pattern of sensory loss. On the other hand, a cerebrovascular accident would likely result in complete upper limb weakness or numbness.

      Understanding Cervical Spondylosis

      Cervical spondylosis is a prevalent condition that arises from osteoarthritis. It is characterized by neck pain, which can be mistaken for headaches or other conditions. This condition is caused by the degeneration of the cervical spine, which is the part of the spine that is located in the neck. As the spine degenerates, it can cause the vertebrae to rub against each other, leading to pain and discomfort.

      Cervical spondylosis can also cause complications such as radiculopathy and myelopathy. Radiculopathy occurs when the nerves that run from the spinal cord to the arms and legs become compressed or damaged. This can cause pain, numbness, and weakness in the affected area. Myelopathy, on the other hand, occurs when the spinal cord itself becomes compressed or damaged. This can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty walking, loss of bladder or bowel control, and even paralysis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture. The fracture is treated with a dynamic hip screw (DHS). The physiotherapist on the ward asks for clarification on the patient's weight bearing status.

      What guidance would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full weight bearing immediately post-op

      Explanation:

      Hip fracture surgery aims to enable immediate weight bearing to reduce complications associated with immobility. The BOA recommends unrestricted weight bearing to shorten hospital stays and improve patient compliance. The dynamic hip screw requires weight bearing for proper compression of the fracture site.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain that worsened with walking and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain that worsened with walking and a snapping sensation when moving her hip. She has a history of recurrent left shoulder dislocations, but no past medical history of congenital hip dysplasia. Her father has Ehler-Danlos syndrome. On examination, there was no joint swelling and normal passive and active movement without restriction in the range of motion. What is a useful assessment for hypermobility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beighton score

      Explanation:

      The Beighton score is a valuable method for evaluating hypermobility, with a positive result indicating at least 5 out of 9 criteria met in adults or at least 6 out of 9 in children. In contrast, Schirmer’s test is commonly employed to diagnose Sjogren syndrome, while plain radiographs and MRI scans are not effective for assessing hypermobility.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile and easily bruised skin, as well as recurrent joint dislocations. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left knee pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He denies any history of injury and reports feeling well, except for a recent episode of food poisoning after eating a kebab 2 weeks ago. He has no personal or family history of rheumatological disorders and has never had any sexually transmitted infections. Upon examination, the knee appears swollen, red, and tender. Aspiration of the joint reveals clear fluid without white blood cells or crystals. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis and gout or pseudogout can be ruled out due to the lack of white cells and crystals. If there is a painful swelling behind the knee without erythema, it may indicate a ruptured baker’s cyst. However, in this case, the diagnosis is reactive arthritis (previously known as Reiter’s arthritis), which is linked to chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, as well as gastroenteritis.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and swollen right knee. An x-ray reveals no fracture but significant chondrocalcinosis. Assuming the diagnosis is pseudogout, what is the most probable finding in the joint fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is characterized by rhomboid-shaped crystals that exhibit weakly positive birefringence.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left knee. During a lower limb examination, you observe that the tibia moves backward when a force is applied. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when hanging her arm over the side of the bed. She also has a positive Tinel's sign. What is the most probable factor contributing to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often caused by rheumatological disorders. During the clinical examination, it is important to look for signs of rheumatoid arthritis, such as rheumatoid nodules, vasculitic lesions, and arthritis in the metacarpophalangeal joints.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old man with Crohn's disease is taking azathioprine to keep his condition...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with Crohn's disease is taking azathioprine to keep his condition under control. He visits his doctor complaining of fever, fatigue, and cold-like symptoms that have lasted for three days. Given his medical history, the doctor is worried and decides to run some tests.

      What is the most crucial test to perform in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences infection or bleeding while taking azathioprine, it is important to consider a full blood count. This is because azathioprine can cause myelosuppression, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. A chest X-ray would not be helpful in this scenario as it would not show myelosuppression. Liver function tests are also not as important as checking the full blood count. Checking TPMT levels is not necessary in this case as they would have already been checked before starting the medication.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with intermittent mild pain and pins...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with intermittent mild pain and pins and needles sensation in her thumb and index finger. The pain is triggered by flexing her wrist or accidental hits and has been ongoing for a few weeks despite taking over the counter pain relief. She is worried about its persistence as it is affecting her work as a typist. What is the initial management strategy recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, a trial of conservative treatment should be attempted initially, such as wrist splinting or a corticosteroid injection if necessary. This patient is experiencing classical symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, including pain and paraesthesia in the wrist and median nerve territory. Wrist splinting is the first-line option recommended by NICE, as it aims to immobilise the wrist and relieve pressure on the median nerve. Corticosteroid injections may be used alongside a wrist splint if conservative management is ineffective after 4-6 weeks. NSAIDs can be taken for pain relief, but they do not treat the underlying condition. Surgical decompression should only be considered if symptoms are severe or persist despite conservative treatment.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old male comes to the emergency department (ED) after twisting his ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to the emergency department (ED) after twisting his ankle while playing soccer. Upon arrival at the ED, he is unable to take more than two steps and experiences bony tenderness at the lateral malleolus. An x-ray is conducted, revealing an undisplaced fracture of the fibula, located just distal to the syndesmosis.
      What is the appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesia and encourage to weight-bear as tolerated with a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot

      Explanation:

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 19 - As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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  • Question 20 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.
      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis.
      Which test would be most suitable to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is common in the adult population, but it is not a reliable diagnostic tool for autoimmune rheumatic disease without additional clinical features. To accurately diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies in patients with relevant clinical features is highly predictive. However, these markers cannot be used as rule-out tests, as there is still a chance of SLE even with a negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE, as they are also found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sudden exacerbation of her symptoms. She reports bilateral sciatica, left foot drop, perianal paraesthesia, and urinary incontinence over the past 24 hours. What imaging is necessary to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI spine

      Explanation:

      When a patient is suspected to have cauda equina syndrome, it is crucial to conduct an urgent MRI of the spine for investigation. This is the preferred method of investigation to determine the cause of the syndrome. The most common cause is a herniated intravertebral disc that compresses the cauda equina. Other possible causes include primary or metastatic spinal tumors, infections like epidural abscesses, or hematomas. Imaging is necessary to identify the specific pathology causing the syndrome, determine the level of pathology, and guide the appropriate intervention. The article Cauda equina syndrome by Lavy C and Wilson-MacDonald J in BMJ 2009;338:b936 provides further information on this topic.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

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  • Question 22 - A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and body aches. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports feeling increasingly tired for the past several months and experiencing joint and muscle pains. Her medical history indicates chronic heart failure, which is being treated with isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine. As hydralazine can lead to drug-induced lupus, what investigation would be most helpful in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      ALP can be rewritten as alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain that extends to his buttocks for the past 3 months. He experiences the most discomfort in the morning, but it gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, he wakes up in the early hours of the morning due to the pain. What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndesmophytes on plain x-ray

      Explanation:

      Syndesmophytes, which are ossifications of the outer fibers of the annulus fibrosus, are a common feature of ankylosing spondylitis. This patient is exhibiting symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given his age, gender, and the nature of his pain. Plain x-rays can reveal the presence of ossifications within spinal ligaments or intervertebral discs’ annulus fibrosus. It is incorrect to assume that his symptoms would not improve with naproxen, as NSAIDs are commonly used to alleviate inflammatory joint pain. A bamboo spine on plain x-ray is a rare late sign that is not typically seen in clinical practice. While ankylosing spondylitis may be associated with apical lung fibrosis, this would present as a restrictive defect on spirometry, not an obstructive one.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and difficulty standing up...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and difficulty standing up from her chair for the past four weeks. She reports experiencing eyelid swelling and feeling generally unwell for the past two months, and now has trouble walking and grooming herself. Upon examination, the doctor observes reduced strength in her hips and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around her eyes, and a thick red rash on her knuckles. The doctor suspects a rheumatological condition and refers her for further testing. What urgent additional investigation is required, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignancy screen

      Explanation:

      Patients who are newly diagnosed with dermatomyositis require an urgent screening for malignancy. The presence of proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, and Gottron’s papules are indicative of dermatomyositis. It is important to investigate for underlying cancer, with common malignancies including lung, breast, ovarian, prostate, and colorectal. A malignancy screen may involve a chest x-ray, mammography, CA-125, pelvic ultrasound (in females), prostate-specific antigen (in males), faecal occult blood testing, and potentially a CT chest/abdomen/pelvis. Basic blood tests such as serum corrected calcium and LFTs should also be done as a quick screen for bone and liver metastases. Fundoscopy is not necessary in the absence of ocular symptoms. A pregnancy test is not required for this patient due to her age. A renal biopsy is only necessary if there is rheumatological renal disease or if systemic lupus erythematosus is suspected. However, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with dermatomyositis.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man with a history of scoliosis, pectus excavatum, recurrent pneumothorax, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of scoliosis, pectus excavatum, recurrent pneumothorax, and mitral valve prolapse is contemplating starting a family. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that has been bothering him for 6 weeks. The pain is exacerbated by sitting. During the examination, the GP observes weakness in left hip abduction and left foot drop. However, power in the right limb is normal, and lower limb reflexes are normal in both legs. The GP suspects a prolapsed disc. Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a history of lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a history of lower back pain and stiffness persisting for six months. The pain and stiffness improve with exercise but worsen at night. Physical examination reveals reduced flexion of the spine. Ankylosing spondylitis is suspected, and the patient is scheduled for blood tests and spinal X-rays. What finding would most strongly support the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacroiliitis on X-ray

      Explanation:

      The most effective way to confirm a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis is through the detection of sacro-ilitis on a pelvic X-ray. This condition is commonly found in males between the ages of 20 and 30. While radiographs may not show any abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, later changes may include sacroiliitis, lumbar vertebrae squaring, and bamboo spine. ANA and rheumatoid factor tests are not useful in diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis, as they are positive in other autoimmune diseases. HLA-B27 testing is also not a reliable indicator, as it can be positive in individuals with or without the disease. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are often elevated in patients with ankylosing spondylitis, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out the condition.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old basketball player presents with difficulty moving after an injury during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old basketball player presents with difficulty moving after an injury during a game. He reports hearing a 'popping' sound when the incident occurred and experienced a sudden onset of severe pain in the back of his right leg.

      Clinical examination showed swelling of the right calf and no movement of his right foot whilst squeezing the corresponding calf, whilst lying face down on the examining bench.

      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to request for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms and a positive Thompson’s test indicating a possible Achilles tendon rupture, ultrasound is the recommended initial imaging test. However, ultrasound may not be able to distinguish between a partial rupture and tendonitis. CRP is not useful in managing Achilles tendon ruptures as it only shows the level of inflammation in the blood. US Doppler is not necessary in this case as it is primarily used to assess peripheral arterial supply. If ultrasound is not available, MRI can be used as a confirmatory test and can differentiate between a partial rupture and tendonitis.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

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  • Question 31 - A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in his back that radiates to his right groin. The pain started three days ago, has been progressively worsening, and is exacerbated by walking. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. He also reports feeling feverish and experiencing chills for the past 24 hours.

      The patient has no significant medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, drinks 30 units of alcohol per week, and injects heroin daily. Upon examination, his heart rate is 96/minute, respiratory rate is 14/minute, blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 98%. His temperature is 38.4 ºC.

      During examination of the spine and right hip, he experiences pain on movement of the hip joint, particularly flexion, but is not tender on palpation of the spine or hip joint. There is no evidence of swelling or erythema of the spine or hips, and no difference in temperature. Abdominal examination reveals a soft and non-tender abdomen, without organomegaly and present bowel sounds. The kidneys are non-ballotable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliopsoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with fever and back or flank pain, it is important to consider the possibility of an iliopsoas abscess. This condition is indicated by pain in the hip joint area, along with a fever and pain during movement. Iliopsoas abscess occurs when there is a collection of pus within the iliopsoas muscle, which extends from the T12 – L5 vertebrae to the femur’s lesser trochanter. Intravenous drug use is a risk factor for developing this condition.

      Vertebral osteomyelitis, on the other hand, usually presents with tenderness, swelling, and weakness of the surrounding muscles over the infected vertebrae. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head may cause groin pain, but given the patient’s fever and IVDU status, an iliopsoas abscess is more likely. Kidney stones can cause constant pain from the loin to the groin, while appendicitis usually presents with pain in the umbilical region or right iliac fossa. The patient’s normal abdominal exam also makes appendicitis less likely.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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  • Question 32 - A 67-year-old man has recently undergone a DEXA scan after experiencing back pain.
    The...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has recently undergone a DEXA scan after experiencing back pain.
      The results are as follows:
      Site T score
      Lumbar spine -1.5
      Femoral neck -2.0
      What does the femoral neck bone density score indicate for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her bone density is 2.5 standard deviations below that of an average healthy young adult

      Explanation:

      The statement that the patient’s T score is 2.5% below that of an average 65-year-old woman is inaccurate. T scores are calculated as the number of standard deviations above or below the mean of a young reference population, not as a percentage relative to the mean. Additionally, the trabecular bone score is not a measure of bone density but rather a newer method that evaluates skeletal texture from DEXA images and may offer further insight into a patient’s risk of fractures.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

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  • Question 33 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
      What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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  • Question 35 - A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back of his right arm that has been getting bigger for the past three months. Recently, the lump has become very painful. The doctor orders a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Ewing’s sarcoma, which is a malignant bone tumour that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is commonly found in the pelvis and long bones and can cause severe pain. X-rays may show an onion skin appearance. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, and the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein is a key finding in cases of Ewing’s sarcoma.

      Chondrosarcoma is an incorrect diagnosis as it is a malignant tumour of cartilage that typically affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-aged individuals.

      Giant cell tumour is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells that is commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones and has a double-bubble or soap bubble appearance on x-ray. It is more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.

      Osteochondroma is another incorrect diagnosis as it is the most common benign bone tumour and typically presents as a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. It is most commonly found in males under 20 years old and is therefore unlikely given the presentation.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 36 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 37 - Which one of the following is not related to carpal tunnel syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not related to carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ºC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She is worried that her SLE is flaring up and has a tendency to develop health anxiety due to her condition. As lupus can affect multiple organs and systems, she frequently visits her GP practice whenever she experiences new symptoms. The GP conducts some blood tests, which reveal the following results:
      - Hb: 111 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - MCV: 86 fl (84-96)
      - WBC: 12.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 118 µmol/L (55-120)
      - eGFR: 90 ml/min/1.73m² (>/= 90)
      - CRP: 88 mg/L (<5)
      - ESR: 34 mm/hr (0-20)

      What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Underlying infection

      Explanation:

      If a patient with SLE has an elevated CRP, it could indicate the presence of an infection. The patient in question does not have AKI and her kidney function is normal. Although she has a slight normocytic anemia, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms. Fibromyalgia is common in SLE patients, but the elevated CRP in this case suggests an underlying infection rather than fibromyalgia. The patient’s elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels indicate the presence of an infection, rather than a lupus flare.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 40 - A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left knee that is aggravated by his routine basketball practices. The boy also experiences a sensation of the left knee joint getting stuck and a painful 'click' when bending or straightening the left knee. Physical examination of the knee joint reveals a slight accumulation of fluid and a detectable loose body. Furthermore, tenderness is noticeable upon palpating the femoral condyles while the knee is flexed. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Osteochondritis dissecans is commonly seen in the knee joint and is characterized by knee pain after exercise, locking, and ‘clunking’. This condition is often caused by overuse of joints due to sports activities and can lead to secondary effects on joint cartilage, including pain, swelling, and possible formation of free bodies. Baker’s cyst, Osgood-Schlatter disease, and osteoarthritis are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

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  • Question 41 - A fifty-six-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of recurring headaches and limb...

    Incorrect

    • A fifty-six-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of recurring headaches and limb pain that have persisted for six months. Despite taking ibuprofen and paracetamol, he has not experienced any relief. The headaches occur without any preceding symptoms, last for less than an hour, and do not cause dizziness or nausea. They occur 4-6 times per day. Additionally, he has noticed a loss of hearing in his left ear. The GP conducts some blood tests, which reveal elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP), normal calcium, normal phosphate, and normal thyroid hormone levels. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone is bisphosphonates, which inhibit osteoblastic activity. This patient’s symptoms, including bone pain, headaches, and hearing loss, along with elevated ALP levels, suggest a diagnosis of Paget’s disease. While calcium supplements may be useful for other conditions, they are not indicated for Paget’s disease, as calcium levels are typically normal. Triptans, codeine, and a Cochlear implant are also not appropriate treatments for this condition.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

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  • Question 42 - A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, indicating decreased bone mineral density. What patient factors are necessary to calculate his Z-score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity

      Explanation:

      When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density to that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density to that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

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  • Question 43 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided flank pain radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided flank pain radiating to the back which had developed over the past 10 days. There is no history of trauma or injury to the area.

      He is a known intravenous drug user who has been commenced on a methadone rehabilitation programme around 2 weeks previously. He has no fixed abode and spends his night between various hostels.

      He has no significant past medical history. Although has previous admissions following various injuries such as stabbings.

      His observations are: heart rate 99/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 98/75 mmHg, temperature 37.7º, Sats 99% on air.

      On examination, he appears to be in pain and is lying flat on his back with his knees flexed. He is very tender over his back at L1 and L2 levels. He actively resists passive movement from his position of comfort and is unable to weight bear due to pain.

      Blood tests show raised inflammatory markers, lumbar spine and pelvic x-ray show no abnormality.

      He is requesting analgesia for his pain.

      What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas abscess

      Explanation:

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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  • Question 44 - A 17-year-old male complains of lower back pain that has been bothering him...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male complains of lower back pain that has been bothering him for 5 months. The pain is worse at night and he experiences morning stiffness. However, he feels better after exercising. He denies any history of injury. Based on his symptoms, the clinical diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis. What is the most common finding on examination associated with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schober's test 4.0cm

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during winter. She reports that her hands change color from pale to blue and red in the morning. Despite using gloves and hand warmers, her symptoms have only slightly improved. She is interested in trying medications to alleviate her symptoms. Based on the probable diagnosis, which medication should be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is a recommended medication for treating Raynaud’s phenomenon. Patients with this condition should be advised to keep their hands warm and quit smoking. NICE suggests other treatments such as evening primrose oil, sildenafil, and prostacyclin for severe attacks or digital gangrene. Chemical or surgical sympathectomy may be helpful for those with severe disease. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, may worsen the condition as it commonly causes cold peripheries. Ibuprofen, an analgesic, may alleviate pain but not other symptoms. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also used for neuropathic pain but not specifically for Raynaud’s.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

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  • Question 46 - Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has come to you with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has come to you with a rash on her cheeks and bridge of her nose. She has also been experiencing non-specific muscle and joint aches and extreme fatigue. You want to run some blood tests to check for any systemic causes, specifically for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following positive blood tests would strongly indicate a diagnosis of SLE?

      Out of the options below, which of the following blood tests if positive would be highly suggestive of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The anti-dsDNA test is highly specific for detecting lupus, making it useful in ruling out systemic lupus erythematosus if the results are negative. On the other hand, anti-CCP is utilized in diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis, while anti-La is primarily present in individuals with Sjogren’s syndrome. Although anti-La can also be found in those with lupus, it lacks specificity. Interestingly, infants born to mothers with anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies have an increased risk of developing neonatal lupus. ANCA is an antibody that targets neutrophils and is observed in patients with autoimmune vasculitis.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 47 - A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset back pain that improves with lying down....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset back pain that improves with lying down. She has a history of ulcerative colitis, for which she has just finished a course of steroids following a flare, went through menopause 15 years ago, and has not had symptoms of it since. Her BMI is 20 kg/m².

      Blood tests are taken and an x-ray confirms a vertebral compression fracture. A FRAX® score is calculated to be 12% and a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is arranged which shows the following:

      Calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Vitamin D 18.2 ng/ml (≥20.0)
      T-score -2.6

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D supplements then alendronic acid

      Explanation:

      Calcium supplementation should only be prescribed alongside bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 48 - A 42-year-old swimmer complains of left shoulder pain that has been progressively worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old swimmer complains of left shoulder pain that has been progressively worsening for the past 2 months. The pain is most noticeable during front or back crawl strokes, but she can still perform breaststroke without discomfort. She is unable to lie on her left side. During the examination, you observe pain when the shoulder is abducted between 90-120 degrees, but there is no tenderness upon palpation. There is no noticeable weakness in the rotator cuff muscles when compared to the other arm. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction during examination. It can be challenging to distinguish between instability, impingement, and rotator cuff tears as they exist on a continuum. However, in this case, the absence of muscle weakness or pain on palpation suggests impingement rather than a rotator cuff tear. Chronic instability of the glenohumeral joint can lead to impingement syndrome, but the worsening pain and severity of symptoms, along with a painful arc, point more towards subacromial impingement. Acromioclavicular degeneration is typically associated with popping, swelling, clicking, or grinding, and a positive scarf test. Calcific tendinopathy may cause extreme pain that makes examination difficult, and there is significant tenderness on palpation.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

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  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of low back pain. The pain is more severe at night and frequently spreads to his hips. It gets better with physical activity. He is also experiencing light sensitivity in both eyes and decreased vision in his left eye. Despite taking oral NSAIDs, his symptoms have not improved. What would be the most suitable medication for the next stage of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a condition that can cause acute iritis in approximately one-third of patients. This man is displaying typical symptoms of AS and is also experiencing acute iritis. Since oral NSAIDs have not been effective, the next course of action would be to consider TNF-alpha blockers like infliximab and etanercept. DMARDs such as methotrexate and leflunomide have not been found to be helpful in treating AS. While capsaicin may be useful for osteoarthritis, it is not indicated for AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 50 - A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that has been bothering him for a week. He experiences stiffness in the morning. He has been experiencing pain while urinating for three weeks and has noticed red and painful eyes this morning. He has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse four weeks ago and has not been tested for a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s history of unprotected sexual intercourse increases the likelihood of Chlamydia trachomatis being the cause of this condition, as it is the most common culprit. Ankylosing spondylitis typically presents with back pain and may be accompanied by iritis/uveitis, but it does not cause urethritis. Disseminated gonococcal disease is associated with tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Although gout is rare in this age group, it should still be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients with swollen and painful joints.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

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