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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is undergoing a challenging cholecystectomy with significant bleeding. The surgical team decides to place a vascular clamp horizontally across the front edge of the epiploic foramen. What structure will be blocked by this action?
Your Answer: Left gastric artery
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct are blocked.
The Epiploic Foramen and its Boundaries
The epiploic foramen is a small opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. It is located posterior to the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The boundaries of the epiploic foramen include the bile duct to the right, the portal vein behind, and the hepatic artery to the left. The inferior boundary is the first part of the duodenum, while the superior boundary is the caudate process of the liver.
During liver surgery, bleeding can be controlled by performing a Pringles manoeuvre. This involves placing a vascular clamp across the anterior aspect of the epiploic foramen, which occludes the common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein. This technique is useful in preventing excessive bleeding during liver surgery and can help to ensure a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female comes to you with a similar concern about her 'unsightly toe'. She has been hesitant to wear open-toed shoes due to the appearance of her toe. After taking some clippings and sending them to the lab, the results confirm onychomycosis. You decide to prescribe a 6-month course of terbinafine.
What is the mechanism of action of terbinafine?Your Answer: DNA topoisomerase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Squalene epoxidase inhibitor
Explanation:Terbinafine causes cellular death by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase, which is responsible for the biosynthesis of ergosterol – an essential component of fungal cell membranes.
Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Digoxin, which is not an antibiotic, inhibits Na+K+ATPase.
Quinolones prevent bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase.
Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to dihydrofolate reductase and preventing the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF), which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of a malodorous discharge from his right ear for the past 3 weeks. The patient also reports experiencing ear pain for the past 2 weeks and occasional mild dizziness. Upon examination, the skin around the ear and pinna appear normal, but the ear canal is filled with debris. After removing the debris, a small perforation and waxy debris are observed on the tympanic membrane.
The Rinne test indicates that bone conduction is better than air conduction on the right, and the Weber test shows sound lateralization to the right. The patient has no significant medical history and has never presented with an ear problem before.
What is the most likely condition based on this patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer: Otitis media
Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:Cholesteatoma is a growth of non-cancerous squamous epithelium that can be observed as an ‘attic crust’ during otoscopy. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with cholesteatoma, including ear discharge, earache, conductive hearing loss, and dizziness, which suggests that the inner ear has also been affected. It is important to distinguish cholesteatoma from otitis externa, as failure to diagnose cholesteatoma can lead to serious complications. Cholesteatoma can erode the ossicles bones, damage the inner ear and vestibulocochlear nerve, and even result in brain infections if it erodes through the skull bone.
Otitis externa is an inflammation of the outer ear canal that causes ear pain, which worsens with movement of the outer ear. It is often caused by the use of earplugs or swimming in unclean water. Otitis media is an inflammation of the middle ear that can lead to fluid accumulation and perforation of the tympanic membrane. It is common in children and often follows a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Myringitis is a condition associated with otitis media that causes small vesicles or cysts to form on the surface of the eardrum, resulting in severe pain and hearing impairment. It is caused by viral or bacterial infections and is treated with pain relief and antibiotics.
Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old child presents to the emergency department with polyarthritis and chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward. Blood tests reveal a raised ESR and leucocytosis, but are otherwise normal. The child's parents mention that they have never vaccinated their child as they themselves are unvaccinated and rarely fall ill. In light of this information, you decide to order an anti-streptolysin-O-titre to investigate for recent streptococcal infection. What is the immunological term used to describe the mechanism behind the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Viral persistence
Correct Answer: Molecular mimicry
Explanation:Rheumatic fever is caused by molecular mimicry, where the M protein on the cell wall of Streptococcus pyogenes cross-reacts with myosin in the smooth muscles of arteries, leading to autoimmunity. This is evidenced by the patient’s symptoms of polyarthritis and chest pain, as well as the presence of anti-streptolysin-O-titre in their blood. Bystander activation, exposure to cryptic antigens, and super-antigens are all pathophysiological mechanisms that can lead to autoimmune destruction of tissues.
Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.
To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.
Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after fainting. Prior to losing consciousness, he experienced dizziness and heart palpitations. He was unconscious for less than a minute and denies any chest discomfort. Upon cardiac examination, no abnormalities are detected. An ECG is conducted and reveals indications of hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG manifestation of hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Narrow QRS complexes
Correct Answer: Tall tented T waves
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia can be identified on an ECG by tall tented T waves, small or absent P waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. In severe cases, the QRS complexes may form a sinusoidal wave pattern, and asystole may occur. On the other hand, hypokalaemia can be detected by ST segment depression, prominent U waves, small or inverted T waves, a prolonged PR interval (which can also be present in hyperkalaemia), and a long QT interval.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient is seen in clinic and has a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity. Given that this patient is 25 years old and 46XY, what is the correct phenotype?
Your Answer: Internal genitalia male and external genitalia male
Correct Answer: Internal genitalia ambiguous and external genitalia female
Explanation:Androgens play a crucial role in the development of male reproductive organs, as they stimulate the formation of Wolffian ducts that eventually give rise to the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles. In the absence of androgen activity, the Wolffian ducts break down, leading to the failure of male reproductive organ development. Additionally, Sertoli cells produce anti-Mullerian hormone, which prevents the formation of female internal genitalia. The lack of androgen effects also results in the absence of masculine characteristics in the external genitalia.
Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. Common features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little to no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be done through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in individuals with this condition are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.
Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Understanding androgen insensitivity syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with painful swellings in his groin. He reports that he first noticed the swellings 3 days ago and has been experiencing pain, tenesmus, and blood on defecation for the past week. He denies any other symptoms.
You inquire about his sexual history. He reports having had unprotected sex with a new partner 2 weeks ago.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms, considering his clinical presentation and sexual history?Your Answer: Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3 and can present with proctitis and swollen lymph nodes in the groin. This sexually transmitted infection can affect various parts of the body, including the rectum, mouth/throat, and genitals, and is typically contracted through unprotected sexual activity.
Hepatitis B can also be transmitted through sexual contact, but its symptoms are often non-specific, such as anorexia, fever, arthralgia, vomiting, and dark urine.
Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, typically presents with a painless ulcer, fatigue, headaches, joint pain, and lymphadenopathy in men, but it is unlikely to cause proctitis.
HIV, a virus that can lead to AIDS if left untreated, is a risk factor for LGV but usually presents with flu-like symptoms and remains asymptomatic for many years.
Understanding Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. This infection is commonly found in men who have sex with men and those who have HIV. While historically it was more prevalent in tropical regions, it is now seen in developed countries as well.
The infection typically progresses through three stages. The first stage involves a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. In the second stage, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy occurs, which may occasionally form fistulating buboes. The third stage involves proctocolitis.
LGV is treated using doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on his left anterior chest wall that extends to his back and under his armpit, but does not cross the midline. The rash has been present for one day, and he has been feeling lethargic for three days. Based on these symptoms, what virus do you suspect is causing his condition?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:The Varicella zoster virus (VZV) is the correct answer. Shingles is a painful rash that typically appears in a dermatomal distribution and does not usually cross the mid-line. VZV is the virus responsible for causing chickenpox, and after the initial infection, it can remain dormant in nerve cells for many years. Shingles occurs when VZV reactivates. Additional information on shingles can be found below.
Epstein-Barr virus is primarily linked to infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever).
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with viral warts, and some strains are linked to gynecological malignancies. Due to their potential to cause cancer, some types of HPV are now vaccinated against.
Herpes simplex virus is associated with oral or genital herpes infections.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She now presents with joint pain, fatigue, a cough, and a rash on her cheeks. Her blood test reveals positive results for anti-histone antibodies.
What is the underlying reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Drug induced lupus
Explanation:Hydralazine has the potential to cause drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Lupus is characterized by respiratory symptoms, arthralgia, fatigue, and a malar rash (butterfly rash), and the patient has no prior history of these symptoms but has tested positive for anti-histone antibodies. Other drugs that can induce lupus include procainamide, isoniazid, and methyldopa.
Leukaemia, on the other hand, would present with abnormal full blood count results and a more gradual onset, making it less likely in this case.
Pneumonia and parvovirus B19 are also less likely causes, as the patient’s lack of fever and positive anti-histone antibodies do not align with these conditions.
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision resulting in a severely displaced humerus fracture. During surgical repair, the surgeon observes an injury to the radial nerve. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be unaffected by this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:BEST
The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage
The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.
The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.
Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What blood test result indicates hypoglycaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A young child with a plasma glucose concentration of 2.2 mmol/L
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia
Hypoglycaemia occurs when the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. This condition is common and may not always require treatment, especially if it is mild and asymptomatic. However, the diagnosis of true hypoglycaemia requires the satisfaction of Whipple’s triad, which includes the presence of hypoglycaemia, symptoms/signs consistent with hypoglycaemia, and resolution of symptoms/signs when blood glucose level normalises.
Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose. Infants may experience hypotonia, jitteriness, seizures, poor feeding, apnoea, and lethargy. On the other hand, adults and older children may experience tremor, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness.
In summary, hypoglycaemia is important to recognise its symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. While mild hypoglycaemia may not always require intervention, true hypoglycaemia should be diagnosed based on Whipple’s triad. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia vary depending on age, and severe hypoglycaemia can cause serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man has been referred to ENT by his doctor as he has swallowed a small chicken bone that feels stuck in his throat. During laryngoscopy, a chicken bone is observed lodged in the piriform recess. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected by the chicken bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:When foreign objects get stuck in the piriform recess, particularly sharp items like bones from fish or chicken, they can harm the internal laryngeal nerve that lies beneath the mucous membrane in that area. Retrieving these objects also poses a risk of damaging the internal laryngeal nerve. However, the other nerves are not likely to be impacted.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old man is brought by his daughter to see his family physician. The daughter reports that her father has been getting lost while driving and forgetting important appointments. She also notices that he has been misplacing items around the house and struggling to recognize familiar faces. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past 6 months.
Upon examination, the doctor finds that a recent MRI scan shows increased sulci depth consistent with Alzheimer's disease. The man has not experienced any falls or motor difficulties. He has no significant medical history.
What is the most likely brain pathology in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extracellular amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein in cortical plaques and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. A patient presenting with memory problems and decreased ability to recognize faces is likely to have Alzheimer’s disease, with Lewy body dementia and vascular dementia being the main differential diagnoses. Lewy body dementia can be ruled out as the patient does not have any movement symptoms. Vascular dementia typically occurs on a background of vascular risk factors and presents with sudden deteriorations in cognition and memory. The diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is supported by MRI findings of increased sulci depth due to brain atrophy following neurodegeneration. Pick’s disease, now known as frontotemporal dementia, is characterized by intracellular tau protein aggregates called Pick bodies and presents with personality changes, language impairment, and emotional disturbances.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A motorcyclist in his 30s is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a severe closed head injury. He was not wearing a helmet at the time of the accident. As a result, he develops raised intracranial pressure. Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected first by this process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abducens
Explanation:The abducens nerve, also known as CN VI, is vulnerable to increased pressure within the skull due to its lengthy path within the cranial cavity. Additionally, it travels over the petrous temporal bone, making it susceptible to sixth nerve palsies that can occur in cases of mastoiditis.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old individual presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a gradual decline in visual acuity, difficulty seeing at night, and occasional floaters. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposits are observed in the macular region, along with demarcated red patches indicating fluid leakage and bleeding. The patient has no significant medical history. The ophthalmologist recommends a treatment that directly inhibits vascular endothelial growth factors. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and is used as a first-line treatment for the neovascular or exudative form of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). This form of AMD is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal blood vessels in the eye that leak blood and protein below the macula, causing damage to the photoreceptors. Bevacizumab blocks VEGF, which stimulates the growth of these abnormal vessels.
Fluocinolone is a corticosteroid that is used as an anti-inflammatory via intraocular injection in some eye conditions, but it does not affect VEGF. Laser photocoagulation is used to cauterize ocular blood vessels in several eye conditions, but it also does not affect VEGF. Verteporfin is a medication used as a photosensitizer prior to photodynamic therapy, which can be used in eye conditions with ocular vessel proliferation, but it is not an anti-VEGF drug.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with hypovolaemic shock and is vomiting significant amounts of fresh blood. After resuscitation, an upper GI endoscopy is conducted, revealing a bleeding vessel in the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. What vessel is responsible for the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The Gastroduodenal and Inferior Pancreaticoduodenal Arteries
The gastroduodenal artery is located at the back of the first part of the duodenum. If an ulcer erodes through the arterial wall, it can cause significant bleeding. On the other hand, the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery. These two arteries are important in the digestive system, and any damage to them can lead to serious complications. It is essential to take care of the digestive system to avoid any issues that may arise from these arteries. the anatomy and function of these arteries can help in the diagnosis and treatment of any related conditions. Proper medical attention should be sought if any symptoms arise to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation that have been present for a week. He appears to be in good health otherwise. Upon conducting a serum potassium test, you discover that his levels are below the normal range. Your next step is to determine the underlying cause of his hypokalaemia. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly linked to low potassium levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is the correct answer as it causes excess cortisol which can exhibit mineralocorticoid activity and lead to hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a major role in maintaining potassium balance, but other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone also influence potassium levels. The other options listed (congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis) all cause hyperkalaemia. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, leading to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis and rhabdomyolysis also cause hyperkalaemia. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis.
Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.
ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.
In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not trigger insulin secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:The release of insulin is prevented by beta blockers.
Factors that trigger insulin release include glucose, amino acids, vagal cholinergic stimulation, secretin/gastrin/CCK, fatty acids, and beta adrenergic drugs.
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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As a medical student on wards in the endocrinology department, you come across a patient suffering from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. During the ward round, the consultant leading the team decides to test your knowledge and asks about the normal release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the brain.
Can you explain the pathway that leads to the release of this hormone causing the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland via neural cells which extend from the hypothalamus
Explanation:The posterior pituitary gland is formed by neural cells’ axons that extend directly from the hypothalamus.
In contrast to the anterior pituitary gland, which has separate hormone-secreting cells controlled by hormonal stimulation, the posterior pituitary gland only contains neural cells that extend from the hypothalamus. Therefore, the hormones (ADH and oxytocin) released from the posterior pituitary gland are released from the axons of cells extending from the hypothalamus.
All anterior pituitary hormone release is controlled through hormonal stimulation from the hypothalamus.
The adrenal medulla directly releases epinephrine, norepinephrine, and small amounts of dopamine from sympathetic neural cells.
The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the emergency department with worsening nausea and vomiting over the last 3 weeks. This is her second pregnancy. Her first pregnancy had several complications, including hypertension of pregnancy and delivering a large for gestational age baby. What is a significant risk factor for developing HG based on this history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple pregnancy
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a condition characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance, often accompanied by ketosis. Women with multiple pregnancies are at an increased risk of developing HG due to the higher concentrations of pregnancy-related hormones.
Other risk factors for HG include trophoblastic disease, molar pregnancy, and a history of previous hyperemesis. Hypertension of pregnancy typically occurs after 16 weeks and is not associated with an increased risk of HG.
Large for gestational age is not a risk factor for HG as it is usually diagnosed later in pregnancy during growth scans. Multiparity alone is not a risk factor, but a history of previous hyperemesis or nausea and vomiting during pregnancy increases the risk.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the structures listed below articulates with the head of the radius superiorly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capitulum
Explanation:The capitulum of the humerus forms a joint with the head of the radius.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the hospital following a fall where he landed on his outstretched left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his left arm. Upon conducting an x-ray, it is revealed that he has a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus. Which nerve is commonly affected by this type of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve is frequently injured in cases of surgical neck fractures of the humerus, as it passes through this area. Symptoms of axillary nerve injury include loss of sensation in the regimental badge area and difficulty with arm abduction due to the affected deltoid and teres minor muscles.
Damage to the median nerve is uncommon in cases of proximal or mid-shaft humeral fractures, as it is protected by surrounding muscle. However, it may be affected in distal humeral fractures as it passes through the cubital fossa.
The musculocutaneous nerve is well-protected by muscle and is rarely injured in cases of proximal humeral fractures.
The radial nerve is most commonly injured in midshaft humeral fractures, as it runs along the radial groove of the humerus.
Similarly to the median nerve, the ulnar nerve arises from the brachial plexus and runs along the medial surface of the upper arm. It is most commonly injured in cases of distal humeral fractures.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity of a research?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Representativeness of the sample
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an unidentified substance in excess.
Subsequent blood tests indicate that the removal of the drug from the system is proportionate to the declining levels of the drug in the bloodstream.
What is the term used to describe this pharmacokinetic occurrence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First-order kinetics
Explanation:When drugs are eliminated through first-order kinetics, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time increases as the concentration of the drug in the body increases.
First-order kinetics is a proportional relationship between drug concentration and elimination rate, while non-linear elimination kinetics may involve zero-order kinetics at low concentrations and first-order kinetics at high concentrations.
The two-compartment model is useful for understanding the absorption phases of drugs, which can vary depending on factors such as liver function and route of administration.
Drugs that are eliminated through zero-order kinetics are eliminated at a constant rate, regardless of the drug concentration in the body.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Whilst in general practice, you review John, a 50-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking lisinopril, his blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances may arise with this new treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Hypokalaemia may be caused by thiazides
Thiazide diuretics can lead to hypokalaemia by stimulating aldosterone production and inhibiting the Na-Cl symporter. This inhibition results in more sodium being available to activate the Na/K-ATPase channel, leading to increased potassium loss in the urine and hypokalaemia.
Thiazide diuretics may also cause other side effects such as hypocalciuria, hypomagnesemia, and hyperlipidemia. The other options that describe the opposite of these disturbances are incorrect.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Explanation:Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).
It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the leading cause of pneumonia affecting both lungs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenoviruses
Explanation:Causes of Bilateral Pneumonia
Bilateral pneumonia, which is the inflammation of both lungs, can be caused by various factors. The most common cause of this condition is viral infection, particularly upper respiratory tract viruses such as adenoviruses or rhinoviruses. This type of infection usually results in patchy bilateral central/perihilar shadowing on x-ray, rather than lobar consolidation.
On the other hand, bacterial pneumonia, which is caused by pneumococcus or Streptococcus pneumoniae, typically results in the consolidation of a single lobe. Although bilateral infection can occur, it is less common than unilateral infection.
The human herpes viruses (HHV) are a group of eight viruses that can cause different conditions, including pneumonia. Varicella zoster virus (VZV) is one of the HHV that can cause severe pneumonia, especially in pregnant women. However, this type of pneumonia is relatively rare.
Primary TB, which initially affects a single lung, can also cause bilateral changes if the disease becomes more disseminated. Lastly, Mycoplasma pneumoniae can cause atypical pneumonia, which often includes bilateral opacification on x-ray. However, this type of pneumonia is less common than viral causes of bilateral pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a day case procedure. The surgery proves to be more challenging than expected, and a drain is inserted at the surgical site. During recovery, the patient experiences a significant loss of 1800ml of visible blood into the drain. Which of the following outcomes is not expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release of aldosterone via the Bainbridge reflex
Explanation:The Bainbridge reflex is a response where the heart rate is elevated due to the activation of atrial stretch receptors following a sudden infusion of blood.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided chest pain following a fall from a ladder while doing some home repairs. During a chest X-ray, it is discovered that he has a cervical rib, which increases his risk of developing thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS).
What is the most precise information to provide to the patient regarding this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It involves compression of the vessels and/or nerves that supply his arm
Explanation:Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition where the brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein are compressed at the thoracic outlet. Those with cervical ribs are more likely to develop TOS.
TOS does not impact the lungs, so breathing problems or pneumothorax are not a concern for patients.
Regardless of which structure is affected, TOS typically causes pain in the arm rather than the shoulder.
If the thoracic duct becomes blocked, usually due to cancer, an enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow node) may occur.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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