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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.
During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured ovarian cyst
Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women
Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.
To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a hydrocele. During the procedure, the surgeons will be dividing the tunica vaginalis. What is the origin of this structure?
Your Answer: Transversalis fascia
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:The peritoneum gives rise to the tunica vaginalis, which produces the fluid that occupies the hydrocele space.
Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:How does the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill work?
The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) is a widely used method of contraception in the UK. It works by preventing ovulation, which means that an egg is not released from the ovaries. In addition to this, the COC also thickens the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus, and thins the endometrial lining, reducing the chance of implantation.
By combining these three actions, the COC is highly effective at preventing pregnancy. It is important to note that the COC does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so additional protection such as condoms should be used if there is a risk of STIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A young lady comes with complaints of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Upon undergoing an ultrasound scan, indications of endometrial infiltration into the myometrium are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium, leading to symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding and painful periods. This can occur due to the separation of the endometrium from the myometrium, causing inflammation and discomfort. Ultrasound scans can detect an irregular myometrial border and a swollen uterus due to the accumulation of blood in the endometrial tissue. It is important to note that although adenomyosis and endometriosis share similar symptoms, they are distinct conditions that can coexist. Endometrial cancer is not a possible diagnosis as it does not involve the invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium.
Adenomyosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue is found within the myometrium. It is more commonly seen in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, and an enlarged, boggy uterus.
To diagnose adenomyosis, an MRI is the preferred investigation method. Treatment options include symptomatic management, tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia, GnRH agonists, uterine artery embolisation, and hysterectomy, which is considered the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 5
Correct
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You are working in the emergency department. A 27-year-old woman comes in with vomiting and abdominal pain. On examination, she is tender on palpation at all lower quadrants of the abdomen. Her temperature is 38ºC. On ultrasound, there is fluid in the rectouterine pouch.
What anatomical structure would a needle be passed via to extract this fluid?Your Answer: Posterior fornix of the vagina
Explanation:To obtain fluid from the rectouterine pouch, a needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.
The anterior fornix of the vagina is situated nearer to the bladder than the rectouterine pouch in terms of anatomical position.
Similarly, the bladder is closer to the anterior fornix than the rectouterine pouch.
The round ligament is positioned above the rectouterine pouch.
The urethra connects to the bladder and is not in proximity to the rectouterine pouch.
Anatomy of the Uterus
The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.
The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman who has recently found out that she is pregnant presents to you with concerns about her hypertension. She reports having chronic hypertension for the past two years and is currently taking lisinopril. She has no other medical issues. Her blood pressure reading today is 150/88 mmHg. She seeks your guidance on managing hypertension during pregnancy.
What recommendation would you make?Your Answer: Discontinue ramipril and start labetalol
Explanation:Pregnant women should discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors like ramipril or AIIRA like losartan as they have been linked to negative fetal outcomes. Labetalol is typically the preferred medication for managing hypertension during pregnancy, unless there are medical reasons not to use it.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic for her week 28 anti-D injection during her first pregnancy. Blood tests were conducted, and the following outcomes were obtained:
pH 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
PO2 10 kPa (11 - 15)
PCO2 4.0 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
Bicarbonate 20 mmol/L (22 - 29)
What pregnancy-related physiological alteration is accountable for these findings?Your Answer: Increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume
Explanation:A haemoglobin level of 105 g/L is considered normal at 28 weeks of pregnancy, with the non-pregnant reference range being 115-165 g/L.
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.
Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.
The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic pain, deep dyspareunia, and heavy and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The Gynaecology team is consulted and performs a work-up for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease, including urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity, blood cultures, and a high vaginal swab. What organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:If Chlamydia trachomatis is not treated, PID may develop in a significant number of patients. This can lead to serious consequences such as infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy caused by scarring.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for an ultrasound scan. The results reveal foetal macrosomia and polyhydramnios. Given her unremarkable medical history, what is the probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer: Gestational diabetes
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is the correct answer as it can result in foetal macrosomia, which is caused by insulin resistance promoting fat storage, and polyhydramnios, which is caused by foetal polyuria.
While maternal obesity may cause macrosomia, it does not necessarily lead to polyhydramnios.
Foetal gut atresia is a condition where part of the intestine is narrowed or absent, which can make it difficult for the foetus to ingest substances like amniotic fluid. This can result in excess amniotic fluid and polyhydramnios, but not macrosomia.
Hydrops fetalis may cause polyhydramnios, but it does not necessarily lead to macrosomia. However, it can cause hepatosplenomegaly.
Maternal hypercalcaemia may cause polyhydramnios, but it does not necessarily lead to macrosomia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman is undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. The consultant is exploring hormonal therapies to restrict the spread of cancer in her body. Ultimately, she decides to prescribe an aromatase inhibitor.
What is the mechanism of action of these medications?Your Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis
Explanation:Anastrozole and letrozole are medications that belong to the class of drugs known as aromatase inhibitors. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of breast cancer as they work by reducing the production of oestrogen in the body. Aromatase is an enzyme that converts androgens into oestrogens, and these drugs inhibit this process, which typically occurs in adipose tissue.
Tamoxifen is another medication used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by blocking oestrogen receptors in breast tissue, which reduces the growth of breast cancer cells. However, tamoxifen can activate oestrogen receptors in other parts of the body, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer.
GnRH analogues, such as goserelin, are used in the treatment of various types of cancer, including breast and prostate cancer. These drugs work by inhibiting the secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary gland, which reduces the stimulation of the ovaries.
Trastuzumab, also known as Herceptin, is a monoclonal antibody that is used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer. This drug works by binding to HER2 receptors, which are overexpressed in some breast cancer cells, and inhibiting their growth.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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