-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 4-week-old girl presents with vomiting, jaundice and dehydration. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia and metabolic alkalosis.
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements
Explanation:Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correcting Metabolic Derangements
Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects 3-4/1000 live births, with a higher incidence in males and first-born babies. The condition is characterized by an increase in the length and diameter of the pylorus, with hypertrophy of the circular muscle layer and autonomic nerves. The classical electrolyte abnormality associated with infantile pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis.
Before undertaking surgery, it is crucial to correct the metabolic abnormalities in consultation with an experienced paediatrician and anaesthetist. Jaundice may also occur in 2-3% of infants with pyloric stenosis due to a decrease in hepatic glucuronosyltransferase activity associated with starvation.
The tumour is typically diagnosed clinically as a palpable tumour on test feed alongside a history of projectile vomiting and hungry feeding without bile in the vomitus. Upper GI endoscopy may not be necessary if the diagnosis is clear.
Feeding jejunostomy is not appropriate initial management for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive surgical treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, which involves excluding the umbilicus from the operative field due to the risk of staphylococcus aureus infection. Total parenteral nutrition may be ill-advised given the significant electrolyte derangements associated with the condition.
In summary, correcting metabolic derangements is crucial before undertaking surgery for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, and other management options should be carefully considered in consultation with experienced healthcare professionals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
Urea - 5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/LYour Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.
Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.
Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?
Your Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate
Explanation:Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism
Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.
One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficult-to-control hypertension for the past 6 years. Despite trying various medications, his blood pressure remains high. He also reports experiencing muscle weakness and nocturia for many years. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, the patient appears healthy, but his blood pressure is measured at 162/86 mmHg. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 78 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Aldosterone:renin ratio 42 ng/dl per ng/(ml·h) (2-17)
Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the patient's condition?Your Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
You are asked by nursing staff to review a pediatric patient in recovery overnight. As you arrive, the nurse looking after the patient informs you that she is just going to get a bag of fluid for him. On examination, the patient is unresponsive with an obstructed airway (snoring). You notice on the monitor that his heart rate is 33 bpm and blood pressure 89/60 mmHg. His saturation probe has fallen off.
What is your first priority?Your Answer: Call for help and maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver 15 l of high-flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Bradycardia and Airway Obstruction: Priorities and Interventions
When faced with a patient who is unresponsive and has both an obstructed airway and bradycardia, the first priority is to address the airway obstruction. After calling for help, the airway can be maintained with a jaw thrust and delivery of 15 l of high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Monitoring the patient’s oxygen saturation is important to assess their response. If bradycardia persists despite maximal atropine treatment, second-line drugs such as an isoprenaline infusion or an adrenaline infusion can be considered. Atropine is the first-line medication for reversing the arrhythmia, given in 500-micrograms boluses iv and repeated every 3-5 minutes as needed. While a second iv access line may be beneficial, it is not a priority compared to maintaining the airway and controlling the bradycardia. Re-intubation may be necessary if simpler measures and non-definitive airway interventions have failed to ventilate the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Emma is a 27-year-old woman who recently underwent cervical screening. She has no significant medical history and is currently in good health. However, her screening results have come back positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and her cervical cytology is inadequate. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Repeat sample in 3 months
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines for cervical screening, if the smear test is inadequate or the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable, the sample should be repeated within 3 months. Therefore, repeating the sample in 3 months is the correct course of action. Repeating HPV testing in 1 week would not change the management plan as Sarah has already tested positive for hrHPV and requires an adequate cervical cytology result. Colposcopy is only necessary if there are two consecutive inadequate results. Waiting 12 months to repeat the sample would be inappropriate as it would be too long between tests. Similarly, returning Sarah to routine recall is not appropriate as she requires an adequate cytology result.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular contractions. During a vaginal examination, the midwife confirms that the mother is currently in the first stage of labor. When does this stage of labor typically end?
Your Answer: 10 cm cervical dilation
Explanation:The first stage of labour begins with the onset of true labour and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10cm. During this stage, regular contractions occur and the cervix gradually dilates. It is important to note that although 4 cm and 6cm cervical dilation occur during this stage, it does not end until the cervix is fully effaced at 10cm. The second stage of labour ends with the birth of the foetus, not the first.
Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.
During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman who has three children presents to the general practice clinic with complaints of feeling tired and overwhelmed. She had previously been prescribed citalopram for about 6 months after the birth of her first child. Her medical history includes the use of depo progesterone for contraception, which she believes is hindering her ability to lose weight. On examination, her BMI is 29 and her blood pressure is 142/72 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a slightly elevated TSH level of 4.5 µU/l. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Function and Sub-Clinical Hypothyroidism
Thyroid function can be assessed through the levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 in the blood. Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when TSH is mildly elevated, while free T4 remains within the normal range. This indicates that the thyroid is working hard to produce even this amount of T4. Treatment with thyroxine replacement is debated and usually reserved for patients with symptoms and thyroid autoantibodies.
Hypothyroidism is diagnosed when free T4 levels fall below the minimum range, while thyrotoxicosis is ruled out when free T4 is not raised and there are no symptoms. Depression may be a plausible diagnosis, but an elevated TSH level suggests otherwise. Sick euthyroid syndrome may occur in critically ill patients and involves abnormal levels of free T4 and T3 despite seemingly normal thyroid function.
Overall, understanding thyroid function and sub-clinical hypothyroidism can help guide appropriate diagnosis and treatment decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a door while playing with his older brother. He cried and screamed initially, but fell asleep about an hour later. Upon waking up, he vomited twice. During the examination, a 3 cm x 4 cm swelling is observed on his forehead. The central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS) examination are generally normal, as are his eyes. His cervical spine is also normal. While in the examination room, he vomits again. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Speak to social services as there may be a child protection issue
Correct Answer: Observe him closely for at least 4 hours (after the injury)
Explanation:Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans
Children are at a higher risk for head injuries, which can lead to contusion and intracerebral hemorrhage. However, CT scans can also cause radiation-related brain damage and increase the risk of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a detailed assessment and balance the risks and benefits before deciding on investigation and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for head injuries in children.
Observation and CT scans are necessary for children who have had a head injury and have more than one of the following features: loss of consciousness for more than 5 minutes, abnormal drowsiness, three or more episodes of vomiting, a dangerous mechanism/high-impact injury, or amnesia for more than 5 minutes. If they have only one of these features, they should be observed for at least 4 hours.
CT scans should be performed within 1 hour for children with risk factors such as suspicion of non-accidental injury, post-traumatic seizure, GCS less than 14, or presence of a skull fracture or basal skull fracture. A provisional written radiology report should be made available within 1 hour of the scan being performed.
If a child has only one of the risk factors mentioned above, they should be observed for a minimum of 4 hours. If any of the risk factors occur during observation, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.
It is important to note that child protection is crucial, but there are no features in the case history that suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, speaking to social services may not be necessary.
Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)