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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old woman is referred to the rheumatology clinic by her general practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is referred to the rheumatology clinic by her general practitioner due to a macular rash on her back and shoulders, as well as red papules on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Upon examination, these symptoms persist, and she reports experiencing weakness and pain in both shoulders, as well as difficulty swallowing. The patient has no significant medical history but is a smoker. What additional investigations are required for this patient's most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignancy screen

      Explanation:

      The presence of antinuclear antibodies is not specific to dermatomyositis and can be elevated in other autoimmune conditions, such as lupus or antiphospholipid syndrome. Therefore, it should not be relied upon as a diagnostic test. While an electromyogram may be helpful in some cases, it is not essential for the diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Instead, screening for an underlying malignancy is a more important investigation. Fundoscopy is not necessary in this case as there are no ocular symptoms present.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.5
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner have come to seek advice from their...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner have come to seek advice from their GP on how to conceive as they are planning to start a family. The woman has a medical history of asthma and obesity with a BMI of 32 kg/m², while her partner has Crohn's disease that is being managed with methotrexate. They have no significant family history and the woman hopes to have a vaginal birth. She has never been pregnant before. What is the primary advice that should be given?

      Your Answer: Her husband should use contraception and wait for 6 months after stopping treatment first

      Explanation:

      Patients who are using methotrexate must use effective contraception during treatment and for at least 6 months after treatment, whether they are male or female. In this case, the patient’s husband is taking methotrexate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and folic acid metabolism. Therefore, both partners should stop taking methotrexate for 6 months and use effective contraception before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate can damage sperm in men and eggs in women, which can lead to severe complications such as neural tube defects in the fetus. Additional folic acid supplements will not significantly reduce the risk of complications associated with methotrexate. Therefore, both partners should use effective contraception during the time the husband is taking methotrexate. The advice to take 400 micrograms or 5 milligrams of folic acid until the end of the first trimester is incorrect in this case, as the couple should delay trying for a pregnancy for 6 months due to the husband’s methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a diagnosis of systemic...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus. You intend to initiate monotherapy with hydroxychloroquine. What particular monitoring should be considered before starting this medication?

      Your Answer: Visual acuity and fundoscopy

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which can be detected through visual acuity and fundoscopy. It is recommended to conduct baseline screening and annual screening after 5 years of use. Echocardiography, liver function tests, pregnancy tests, and tuberculosis screening are not necessary for monitoring hydroxychloroquine use.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of numbness and tingling in both hands, particularly at night. Upon examination, there is no weakness in finger flexion, extension, or abduction, but there is weakened pincer grip. Bilateral mild wasting of the thenar eminence is observed, and both Tinel's and Phalen's signs are positive in both hands. Based on her medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to have predisposed her to this condition?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Explanation:

      Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome is frequently caused by rheumatoid arthritis, which is a common condition. This woman displays symptoms of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, which is an uncommon occurrence and typically results from conditions that enlarge the interstitial space with soft tissue growth or fluid. Although all of these conditions are linked to bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis is the most probable cause in a 33-year-old. Acromegaly is more likely to cause carpal tunnel syndrome after the age of 50, and this association is well-known and frequently tested in exams.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After diagnosis with polymyalgia rheumatica, which medication is inadequate response would lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is useful for protecting bones during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of swollen...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of swollen hands and feet for the past 3 months. She reports that the symptoms worsen in cold weather and her fingers frequently turn blue. She is now experiencing difficulty making a fist with both hands. Additionally, she has observed thickening of the skin spreading up her arms and thighs over the last month. She also reports a dry cough that started a month ago, accompanied by shortness of breath during physical activity. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from systemic sclerosis, which is characterized by the tightening and fibrosis of the skin, commonly known as scleroderma. The presence of a dry cough and involvement of the proximal limbs suggest diffuse systemic sclerosis, which has a poorer prognosis than limited systemic sclerosis (also known as CREST syndrome). Eosinophilic fasciitis, a rare form of systemic sclerosis, is unlikely as it spares the hands and does not present with Raynaud’s phenomenon. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is relatively common, does not typically present with sclerotic features and is likely part of the patient’s wider autoimmune disease.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 270 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old woman has presented to the hospital with a five-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has presented to the hospital with a five-hour history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain radiating into the shoulder and jaw with associated diaphoresis, dyspnoea, and dizziness.

      She has a past medical history of Crohn's disease and takes azathioprine 150 mg daily. She was previously started on sulfasalazine but developed facial swelling.

      ECG shows normal sinus rhythm at 78 bpm but demonstrates 3mm of ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

      Blood results are:
      Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 132 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Initial Troponin T 17 ng/L (5-14)
      5 hour Troponin T 326 ng/L (5-14)

      A diagnosis of an inferior non-ST elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which medication should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      There is a risk of allergy to sulfasalazine for patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      The correct answer is aspirin. Evidence suggests that there is cross-sensitivity between aspirin and sulfasalazine, so if a patient is allergic to one, they may also be allergic to the other. Bisoprolol is safe to administer as there are no known contraindications, allergies, or intolerances. Clopidogrel is also safe to administer in the current situation, but its use should be reviewed if the patient is experiencing an acute flare of Crohn’s with excessive rectal bleeding. Ramipril is safe to administer.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old male presents to the emergency department with feverish symptoms and a...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents to the emergency department with feverish symptoms and a painful right knee. He had a Chlamydia trachomatis infection two weeks ago. His vital signs are as follows:
      Respiratory rate 17 breath/min
      Heart rate 84 beats/min
      Blood pressure 122/76 mmHg
      Temperature 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
      What is the most likely finding in a synovial fluid sample taken from this patient's knee?

      Your Answer: Sterile synovial fluid with a high white blood cell count

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is synovial fluid that is sterile but has a high white blood cell count. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a type of seronegative spondyloarthritis that typically affects the lower limbs and occurs after a gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. The condition is aseptic, meaning that no bacteria are present in the synovial fluid, but it can cause an increase in white blood cells, particularly polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Chlamydia trachomatis is an incorrect answer because while it may be the cause of reactive arthritis, the condition itself is aseptic. Staphylococcus aureus is also an incorrect answer because it is more commonly associated with septic arthritis, which is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms or test results. Negatively birefringent crystals are commonly seen in gout, while positively birefringent crystals are associated with calcium pyrophosphate deposition (pseudogout).

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen second toe and wrist pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen second toe and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.

      Hb 125 g/l

      Platelets 390 * 109/l

      WBC 6.5 * 109/l

      ESR 78 mm/h

      Rheumatoid Factor Negative

      Antinuclear Antibody Negative

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinuclear antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain in both wrists and numbness and tingling at night. She reports needing to shake her wrists in the morning to regain feeling in her fingers. Upon examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular compromise in her hands, but Phalen's test is positive. Grip strength is reduced, and wrist range of motion is normal. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Wrist splinting +/- steroid injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - Sophie is a 32-year-old cyclist who fell off her bike two days ago...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 32-year-old cyclist who fell off her bike two days ago and landed on her outstretched hands. She did not hit her head. Today, she visited the emergency department complaining of pain in her right hand. She denies pain in other parts of her body.

      Upon examination, her right hand is mildly swollen, but there is no visible deformity. She experiences tenderness when palpated around her wrist dorsally and is particularly sensitive in the anatomical snuffbox area. Although the range of active movement of her wrist is limited due to pain and swelling, she was able to demonstrate thumb and wrist extension.

      After undergoing a standard x-ray series of her hand, wrist, and forearm, no fractures were detected. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left hand for several months, particularly when exposed to cold weather. She describes the pain as spasming and accompanied by numbness and a change in color in her hand. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, and there are no visible signs or symptoms. However, a non-specific rash resembling eczema is present in the flexure creases. Blood tests are conducted, and the patient is referred for further specialized testing. What factors would suggest a primary disease rather than a secondary one?

      Your Answer: Positive findings on nailfold capillary microscopy

      Correct Answer: Onset under 40 years

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease, specifically primary Raynaud’s, is likely in a young woman experiencing bilateral symptoms. The spasming of hand vessels causing color changes, especially in cold weather, strongly suggests Raynaud’s. Onset under 40 years of age is a key feature of primary Raynaud’s, while onset over 40 years points more towards secondary Raynaud’s, which may be associated with a connective tissue disorder. Specialist testing, such as nail fold capillary microscopy, may be performed to rule out secondary Raynaud’s. Autoantibodies would indicate the possibility of a systemic disorder causing secondary Raynaud’s. The presence of a non-specific rash may also suggest secondary Raynaud’s, as many systemic conditions associated with Raynaud’s are also linked to rashes.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of their wrist and forearm. During examination, you observe weak flexion of all digits, including the thumb. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C8 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Unlike named nerve pathology, radiculopathy follows a dermatomal distribution. This means that the pattern of sensory loss cannot be explained by a single named nerve. For example, while the ulnar nerve supplies the ulnar border of the hand and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve supplies the medial forearm, these areas are actually covered by the C8 dermatome.

      It’s important to note that thumb flexion would not be affected in ulnar nerve lesions, and carpal tunnel syndrome would only affect flexion of the thumb without producing this specific pattern of sensory loss. On the other hand, a cerebrovascular accident would likely result in complete upper limb weakness or numbness.

      Understanding Cervical Spondylosis

      Cervical spondylosis is a prevalent condition that arises from osteoarthritis. It is characterized by neck pain, which can be mistaken for headaches or other conditions. This condition is caused by the degeneration of the cervical spine, which is the part of the spine that is located in the neck. As the spine degenerates, it can cause the vertebrae to rub against each other, leading to pain and discomfort.

      Cervical spondylosis can also cause complications such as radiculopathy and myelopathy. Radiculopathy occurs when the nerves that run from the spinal cord to the arms and legs become compressed or damaged. This can cause pain, numbness, and weakness in the affected area. Myelopathy, on the other hand, occurs when the spinal cord itself becomes compressed or damaged. This can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty walking, loss of bladder or bowel control, and even paralysis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old female presents with pain and stiffness in her left knee, which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents with pain and stiffness in her left knee, which she’s had for the last 4 months. On further questioning, she also has pain and stiffness in her right wrist and the distal interphalangeal joint of her left index finger. Her symptoms are worse in the morning and seem to improve throughout the day. She reports that her late mother also had joint problems; but does not know the diagnosis, although she recalls that her fingers were completely swollen before she started treatment.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      In many instances, arthritis symptoms are identified prior to the onset of psoriasis. Symmetrical polyarthritis is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
      What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?

      Your Answer: Location of pain

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a one-month history...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a one-month history of bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain. Polymyalgia rheumatica is diagnosed and the patient is prescribed a daily dose of 15 mg oral prednisolone. Considering the patient's likelihood of taking prednisolone for more than 3 months, what is the best course of action to address her heightened risk of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Immediate co-prescription of alendronate

      Explanation:

      According to the Royal College of Physicians of London’s guidance on glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis, patients who are going to take long-term steroids should receive bone protection immediately. This involves prescribing a prophylactic bisphosphonate, such as alendronate, to any patient who will likely continue taking corticosteroids for at least 3 months. Therefore, the correct next step in management would be to immediately co-prescribe alendronate, rather than giving smoking cessation advice or ordering a DEXA scan. While denosumab is an option, bisphosphonates are typically the first line of defense for osteoporosis prophylaxis and management. Delaying the prescription of alendronate would be incorrect, as bone protection is necessary right away. It’s important to note that a t score of -1.5 is the standard cutoff for starting bone protection treatment, not -1 as stated in the question.

      Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old basketball player arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old basketball player arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden popping sensation in his left heel. During the physical examination, a noticeable dip is palpable on the back of his ankle. The patient reports that he was prescribed ciprofloxacin for a chest infection while on a recent trip to Italy. What is the most suitable test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound ankle

      Explanation:

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking a referral to an obstetrician as she has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking a referral to an obstetrician as she has been trying to conceive and her menstrual period is now one month late. She has tested positive on a home pregnancy test. She has a history of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis for the past two years and is currently only taking hydroxychloroquine as methotrexate was stopped six months ago in anticipation of conception.

      During the physical examination, swelling is noted on the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints of her right hand. The pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her at this time?

      Your Answer: No change in therapy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can safely continue using hydroxychloroquine as a treatment without any changes. While the medication does cross the placenta, it has not been shown to cause harm to the fetus at the doses used for RA treatment. Etanercept may be considered if there is a significant flare of disease during pregnancy, but it is not necessary at this time. Leflunomide is strictly contraindicated due to its high teratogenicity. Methotrexate must be discontinued at least 3 months before pregnancy as it is highly teratogenic and abortifacient. Steroids are not necessary for this patient who is not experiencing a flare.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with complaints of impotence. He...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with complaints of impotence. He has a history of hypertension and reports the absence of morning erections. Upon further inquiry, the patient describes experiencing pain in his buttocks that intensifies with movement. Physical examination reveals muscle atrophy, while the penis and scrotum appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leriche syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leriche syndrome is a condition that typically affects men and is characterized by three main symptoms: claudication (painful cramping) in the buttocks and thighs, muscle wasting in the legs, and impotence caused by nerve paralysis in the L1 region. This condition is caused by atherosclerosis, which leads to blockages in the abdominal aorta and/or iliac arteries. Treatment involves addressing underlying risk factors such as high cholesterol and smoking cessation. Diagnosis is typically made through angiography.

      Understanding Leriche Syndrome

      Leriche syndrome is a condition that affects the iliac vessels, causing atheromatous disease that can compromise blood flow to the pelvic viscera. This can result in symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence. To diagnose the condition, angiography is often used to identify any iliac occlusions. Treatment typically involves endovascular angioplasty and stent insertion to address the occlusions and improve blood flow.

      In summary, Leriche syndrome is a condition that can have significant impacts on a patient’s quality of life. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic and treatment options available, healthcare providers can help patients manage this condition effectively.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and recent blood tests revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine

      Explanation:

      According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, NSAID cover may be considered as an alternative. While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not appropriate for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use. Given the patient’s history of hiatus hernia, using an NSAID like naproxen or ibuprofen to treat gout may not be the best option. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not recommended for gout prevention.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that has been bothering him for 6 weeks. The pain is exacerbated by sitting. During the examination, the GP observes weakness in left hip abduction and left foot drop. However, power in the right limb is normal, and lower limb reflexes are normal in both legs. The GP suspects a prolapsed disc. Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain. He reports experiencing a sharp, burning pain in the middle of his back over the past few days. The pain is severe enough to wake him up at night and he has found little relief with paracetamol. He is requesting a stronger medication. He denies any leg weakness, urinary incontinence, or numbness.

      The patient has no other medical conditions, but he recalls being informed of an irregular prostate during his last visit with his primary care physician six months ago. He received letters for further testing but did not attend the appointments.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediately refer him to the hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      When patients present with back pain, thoracic pain should be considered a warning sign. In this particular case, the patient’s back pain has several red-flag features, including its location in the middle of the back, sudden onset and progression, night pain, and recent prostate exam results. These symptoms are highly indicative of metastatic prostate cancer with spinal cord compression, which is a medical emergency. Immediate hospital assessment is necessary, along with a whole-body MRI and treatment such as high dose dexamethasone, radiotherapy, and surgery if needed. Any response that fails to recognize the urgency of this situation is incorrect.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where he fell a few hours ago. He is holding onto his right shoulder and appears to be in significant pain. The patient denies experiencing any fever or other systemic symptoms, and there is no visible redness around the joint. An anteroposterior x-ray is performed, revealing that the humeral head has become dislodged from the glenoid cavity of the scapula anteriorly. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kocher-technique reduction

      Explanation:

      For selected patients with a recent anterior shoulder dislocation, the Kocher technique can be used for shoulder reduction without the need for analgesia or sedation. This technique involves bending the affected arm at the elbow, pressing it against the body, and rotating it outwards until resistance is felt. The arm is then lifted in the sagittal plane as far as possible forwards and slowly turned inwards. Intra-articular lidocaine and intravenous morphine are not necessary for this procedure. Shoulder immobilisation may be considered after immediate reduction, but timely management is crucial to prevent unstable reduction and damage to neurovascular structures.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right knee. He has never experienced this before. Upon examination, the joint fluid is extracted and sent to the lab for analysis. The rheumatology team suspects pseudogout. What characteristics can help differentiate this condition from gout?

      Your Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful factor in distinguishing between pseudogout and gout. Linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage seen on a knee x-ray are indicative of pseudogout, but not particularly associated with gout. Therefore, the presence of chondrocalcinosis can be used to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Age is not a determining factor in the diagnosis of gout or pseudogout. In this case, the patient’s age of 64 years does not provide any significant information to sway the diagnosis in either direction.

      The presence of crystals is not a distinguishing factor between gout and pseudogout, as both conditions involve crystals. However, the type of crystals differs between the two. Pseudogout crystals are weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped, while gout crystals are negatively birefringent.

      Both gout and pseudogout typically respond well to colchicine for acute pain management, so this is not a useful factor in distinguishing between the two conditions.

      Increased warmth of the affected joint is not a reliable factor in distinguishing between gout and pseudogout, as it may be present in both conditions.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?

      Your Answer: Flexor retinaculum

      Explanation:

      The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral aspect of her midfoot after slipping off a kerb while walking. She is having difficulty walking and a radiograph reveals a fracture of the 5th metatarsal. What is the most probable mechanism of action that caused this fracture?

      Your Answer: Inversion of the foot and ankle

      Explanation:

      Fractures of the 5th metatarsal are commonly caused by the foot and ankle being forcefully inverted. These types of fractures are often seen in athletes, including dancers, football players, and rugby players, but can also occur from minor incidents such as stepping off a curb. Avulsion fractures are a specific type of 5th metatarsal fracture that result from the peroneus brevis muscle pulling on the proximal part of the bone during foot inversion. It is important to note that 5th metatarsal fractures are not associated with any other movements of the ankle or hip.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During the clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side, but there are no other notable findings. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine x-ray

      Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal
      18.6
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