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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding accident. X-rays revealed a closed right tibial shaft fracture with minimal displacement. Over the past 4 hours, he has been experiencing severe pain in the leg, despite receiving hourly oral morphine in addition to regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. His urine has turned dark and a dipstick test shows the presence of blood.

      On admission, his electrolyte and renal function tests were as follows:
      Na+ 138 mmol/L
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L
      Urea 3.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L

      However, on day 3 of admission, his results have changed significantly:
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 11.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 189 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the primary factor contributing to the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient?

      Your Answer: Accumulation of myoglobin in the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is commonly linked to fractures of the tibial shaft and supracondylar region. The presence of rapidly-progressing pain that is unresponsive to high doses of pain medication is indicative of compartment syndrome. This condition can cause an increase in pressure within the fascial compartment, leading to muscle breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, resulting in rhabdomyolysis. This can cause acute kidney injury, with myoglobinuria causing urine to appear dark brown and test positive for blood. Dehydration and pre-renal AKI may also occur, but urinalysis would not show blood in this case. Goodpasture’s syndrome, which involves the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, typically presents with AKI, proteinuria, and pulmonary symptoms such as haemoptysis and shortness of breath. Obstructive stones usually cause right loin pain, and a single ureter obstruction is unlikely to cause significant renal impairment. While NSAIDs can worsen renal function by inhibiting prostaglandins and causing vasoconstriction of the glomerular afferent arteriole, compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis are likely the primary causes of AKI in this case.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old swimmer complains of left shoulder pain that has been progressively worsening...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old swimmer complains of left shoulder pain that has been progressively worsening for the past 2 months. The pain is most noticeable during front or back crawl strokes, but she can still perform breaststroke without discomfort. She is unable to lie on her left side. During the examination, you observe pain when the shoulder is abducted between 90-120 degrees, but there is no tenderness upon palpation. There is no noticeable weakness in the rotator cuff muscles when compared to the other arm. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction during examination. It can be challenging to distinguish between instability, impingement, and rotator cuff tears as they exist on a continuum. However, in this case, the absence of muscle weakness or pain on palpation suggests impingement rather than a rotator cuff tear. Chronic instability of the glenohumeral joint can lead to impingement syndrome, but the worsening pain and severity of symptoms, along with a painful arc, point more towards subacromial impingement. Acromioclavicular degeneration is typically associated with popping, swelling, clicking, or grinding, and a positive scarf test. Calcific tendinopathy may cause extreme pain that makes examination difficult, and there is significant tenderness on palpation.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading from an ulcer on the plantar surface of the head of the left third metatarsal that had been present for 3 weeks before the onset of cellulitis. She was given oral flucloxacillin and the cellulitis improved, but after a week of treatment, the ulcer was still discharging and there was a tender area of swelling over the ulcer on examination. What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: The patient has a collection of pus which requires surgical drainage

      Explanation:

      Surgical drainage is necessary for the patient’s pus collection, indicating possible osteomyelitis of the metatarsal. The patient’s diabetes history and chronic ulcer elevate the risk.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.

      His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measure serum urate immediately

      Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman is cycling to work when she falls off her bike...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is cycling to work when she falls off her bike and injures her left shoulder. She is experiencing pain and is taken to the Emergency Department. An X-Ray reveals a grade 2 injury to the Acromioclavicular joint. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with sling and immobilisation

      Explanation:

      A grade 1-2 AC joint injury is typically managed conservatively with rest and the use of a sling. If a shoulder dislocation occurs, the Stimson Maneuver may be used for reduction. It is not recommended to rely solely on simple pain relief medication as it may hinder proper healing. Surgery is not typically necessary for this type of injury.

      Understanding Acromioclavicular Joint Injuries

      Acromioclavicular joint injuries are frequently seen in collision sports like rugby, where a fall on the shoulder or outstretched hand can cause damage. These injuries are graded from I to VI, with the severity increasing as the degree of separation worsens. The most common grades are I and II, which can be treated conservatively with rest and a sling. However, grades IV, V, and VI are rare and require surgical intervention. The management of grade III injuries is still a topic of debate and depends on individual circumstances. Overall, understanding the grading system and appropriate management of acromioclavicular joint injuries is crucial for athletes and healthcare professionals alike.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling...

    Incorrect

    • A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling on her outstretched left hand during recess. She is experiencing pain and swelling around her left elbow and forearm.
      Upon examination:
      Heart rate: 92/minute. Respiratory rate: 20/minute. Blood pressure: 102/70 mmHg. Oxygen saturations: 99%. Temperature: 37.5 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
      Left arm: the elbow is swollen and red. The skin is intact. The joint is tender to the touch and has limited range of motion. Sensation is normal. Pulses are present.
      Right arm: normal.
      X-rays of the patient’s left elbow and forearm reveal a proximal fracture of the ulna with a dislocation of the proximal radial head.
      What is the term used to describe this injury pattern?

      Your Answer: Galeazzi fracture

      Correct Answer: Monteggia fracture

      Explanation:

      A Monteggia fracture is characterized by a dislocated proximal radioulnar joint and a fractured ulna. This type of fracture is most commonly observed in children aged 4 to 10 years old. To differentiate it from a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture and a dislocated distal radioulnar joint, one can associate the name of the fracture with the affected bone: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Bennett’s fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his recent blood tests. He had initially complained of aches and pains a week ago, specifically in his shoulders and hips, which had been progressively worsening over the past 3 months. Upon examination, bilateral pain is noted in both the shoulders and hips, which is exacerbated by movement. No signs of muscular atrophy or weakness are observed. What would be the primary investigation recommended for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ESR and CRP

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms. The pain affecting both the pelvic and shoulder girdle in a bilateral manner, without any signs of weakness or wasting, is typical of this condition. Additionally, the patient’s age and gender are also consistent with a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      The recommended first-line investigation for this condition is to check the blood inflammatory markers, specifically the ESR and CRP. These markers are often elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica and typically return to normal levels following steroid treatment. An antibody screen is not necessary as this condition is not associated with auto-antibodies.

      A full-body MRI is not appropriate as it is not a specific test for polymyalgia rheumatica and is typically reserved for more invasive investigations. Ultrasound of the affected joints is also not necessary as there are no structural abnormalities associated with this condition that would be detected by this test. Similarly, X-rays of the shoulders and hips would not aid in the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica as they do not provide visualization of the muscle.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain, weight loss, and bloody diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain, weight loss, and bloody diarrhea for the past month. After being referred for colonoscopy and biopsy, it was discovered that she has continuous inflammation in the mucosa and crypt abscesses. What is the most specific antibody associated with her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pANCA

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the last year and would like some medication to prevent this from reoccurring. His past medical history includes: gout, Crohn's disease, hypertension and depression. His regular medications are: paracetamol, omeprazole, ramipril, azathioprine and sertraline.

      Which medication would pose a risk of bone marrow suppression for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      The combination of azathioprine and allopurinol can lead to a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is particularly concerning for patients with Crohn’s disease who are already taking azathioprine, as both medications inhibit xanthine oxidase.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been progressively worsening for the past 10 months. Despite this, he is otherwise healthy. An x-ray reveals a radiolucency of the subarticular region suggestive of osteolysis, with some areas of patchy sclerosis. Blood tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and prostate-specific antigen. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the recommended treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, which is indicated by an elevated ALP level and typical x-ray findings in this patient. The PSA level of 3.4 ng/ml is within the normal range for a man of his age and does not suggest the presence of prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation on the outside of her left thigh. The pain is particularly bothersome when she moves, especially when she's standing at work. She reports no prior experience with this type of pain and has no significant medical history. Her records show a recent blood pressure reading of 130/90 mmHg and a BMI of 40 kg/m². What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meralgia parasthetica

      Explanation:

      Pain in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is a common symptom of Meralgia parasthetica. This pain is often worsened by standing and relieved by sitting, and is accompanied by altered sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Meralgia parasthetica can be caused by pregnancy, obesity, tense ascites, trauma, or surgery, and is more prevalent in individuals with diabetes.

      In contrast, fibromyalgia typically presents with pain in the neck and shoulders, along with other symptoms such as fatigue, muscle stiffness, difficulty sleeping, and cognitive impairment. Fibromyalgia pain does not typically affect the lateral thigh.

      L3 lumbar radiculopathy, on the other hand, causes pain in the lower back and hip that radiates down into the leg, often accompanied by muscle weakness.

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint pain and stiffness in the hips or knees, and is more common in older individuals, females, and those who are overweight. It does not typically cause changes in sensation in the thigh.

      Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.

      The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.

      Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.

      Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a 37-year-old man who is experiencing worsening pain in his left knee. He is unable to bear weight on the affected leg and reports no injury or trauma. The patient is a known IV drug user and has no known drug allergies or regular medications. On examination, the knee is swollen and hot to touch. His vital signs are heart rate 107 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, oxygen saturations 95%, blood pressure 106/65mmHg, and temperature 38.9ºC. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of Hb, WBC, CRP, and ESR. The synovial fluid culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate first-line IV antibiotic therapy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is likely in an intravenous drug user presenting with an acute, swollen and hot knee, accompanied by fever, inability to weight-bare, and raised inflammatory markers. The Kocher criteria can assist in confirming this diagnosis. According to the BNF, the preferred initial intravenous antibiotic is flucloxacillin, which targets gram-positive cocci and is commonly used for musculoskeletal and soft tissue infections in patients without allergies. Clindamycin may be an alternative, but only for those with a penicillin allergy.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of experiencing arthralgia and swelling in the MCP joints of both hands for the past six months. Upon examination, boggy swelling is observed in the third, fourth, and fifth MCP joints bilaterally, along with erythema and mild tenderness upon palpation. No significant deformities are noted, and she has normal motor function and range of motion in both hands. The following are the results of her investigations:
      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody titre 48U (<20)
      What are the most probable X-ray findings for this patient's hands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteopaenia

      Explanation:

      Juxta-articular osteopenia is an early X-ray finding commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who presents with symmetrical arthropathy affecting multiple hand joints and a positive anti-CCP titre. Joint subluxation is an unlikely finding on initial X-rays at the time of diagnosis, and peri-articular erosions and subchondral cysts are typically seen in progressive disease rather than at the early stages.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains of increasing pain in her right hip joint. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions, but there is no indication of limb shortening or external rotation. An X-ray of the hip reveals microfractures and osteopenia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      The development of avascular necrosis of the femoral head is strongly associated with long-term steroid use, as seen in this patient who is taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old gardener comes to the clinic with rough red papules on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gardener comes to the clinic with rough red papules on his knuckles. The rash has been developing gradually over the past few weeks, and he is unsure of the cause. He reports that the rash is both itchy and painful. Additionally, he has been experiencing difficulty with heavy lifting and climbing stairs. What is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is characterized by roughened red papules, known as Gottron’s papules, mainly over the knuckles. Psoriasis typically presents with scaly plaques on extensor surfaces and may be accompanied by arthritis. Eczema primarily affects the face and trunk of infants and the flexor surfaces of older children, but it is not associated with muscle weakness. Skin involvement is not a common feature of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that has been bothering him for a week. He experiences stiffness in the morning. He has been experiencing pain while urinating for three weeks and has noticed red and painful eyes this morning. He has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse four weeks ago and has not been tested for a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s history of unprotected sexual intercourse increases the likelihood of Chlamydia trachomatis being the cause of this condition, as it is the most common culprit. Ankylosing spondylitis typically presents with back pain and may be accompanied by iritis/uveitis, but it does not cause urethritis. Disseminated gonococcal disease is associated with tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Although gout is rare in this age group, it should still be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients with swollen and painful joints.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in his left forefoot over the past three weeks. He is an avid runner, typically running for two to three hours daily, but has never experienced this issue before. There is no history of direct injury to the foot. Upon examination, he is afebrile with a pulse rate of 88 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. Point tenderness is noted on the left foot, but there is no swelling. X-ray results reveal periosteal thickening, and a diagnosis of metatarsal stress fracture is made. Which metatarsal is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second

      Explanation:

      Metatarsal stress fractures are commonly caused by repeated stress over time and typically occur in healthy athletes, such as runners. The second metatarsal shaft is the most frequent site of these fractures due to its firm fixation at the tarsometatarsal joint, which results in increased rigidity and a higher risk of fracture. Diagnosis is often based on clinical history and examination, as early x-rays may not show any abnormalities. The first metatarsal is the least commonly fractured due to its larger size, which requires greater force to break. On the other hand, the fifth metatarsal is the most commonly fractured as a result of direct trauma or crush injuries.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 19 - Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who presents for a follow-up of her left...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who presents for a follow-up of her left wrist in fracture clinic 3-weeks after a fall on an outstretched hand. Her X-ray at the time of injury was unremarkable but her wrist was immobilised in a Futuro splint as she was tender in the anatomical snuffbox. Subsequent imaging today shows a fracture of the proximal scaphoid pole.
      What is the recommended definitive treatment for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical fixation

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including Colin’s injury. Referral to physiotherapy would not be sufficient for managing this type of fracture, as the risk of avascular necrosis is high. Removing the Futuro splint without further intervention would also be inappropriate, as imaging has shown that the fracture has not yet healed. However, if the fracture were an undisplaced scaphoid fracture not involving the proximal pole, immobilization of the wrist in a Futuro splint or below-elbow cast for an additional 6 weeks would be appropriate.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ºC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

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  • Question 21 - A 13-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. He had vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever two months ago, which were treated supportively by his GP. He is also experiencing balanitis without discharge. The patient's vision remains unchanged. On physical examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left ankle joint, as well as tenderness on motion and pain over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. Blood tests show an elevated white cell count and ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis typically develops up to 4 weeks after an infection and can have a relapsing-remitting course over several months. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a sterile arthritis triggered by distant gastrointestinal or urogenital infections. It usually presents with polyarticular arthralgia, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in people who are positive for the HLA-B27 gene. Behcet’s disease and systemic lupus erythematosus are unlikely diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis may have a more gradual onset with additional symptoms such as morning stiffness, spiking fevers, and a flat, pale pink rash.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 22 - A 13-year-old boy experiences facial swelling and a red, itchy rash shortly after...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy experiences facial swelling and a red, itchy rash shortly after receiving his first dose of the HPV vaccine. Upon arrival, paramedics observe a bilateral expiratory wheeze and a blood pressure reading of 85/60 mmHg. According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I reaction

      Explanation:

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department after coughing up blood this...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department after coughing up blood this morning. She is a non-smoker and has been feeling fatigued for the past four months, losing 5 kg in weight. She has also experienced joint pains in her wrists and noticed blood in her urine on two separate occasions. Her medical history includes sinusitis and recurrent nosebleeds. The chest X-ray and urinalysis reports reveal bilateral perihilar cavitating nodules and protein +, blood ++, respectively. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA)

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features, ANCA associated vasculitis should be considered. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a type of ANCA associated vasculitis that often presents with these symptoms, as well as ENT symptoms. A chest X-ray may show nodular, fibrotic, or infiltrative opacities. The best diagnostic test for granulomatosis with polyangiitis is cANCA. ANA is typically associated with autoimmune conditions like SLE, systemic sclerosis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and autoimmune hepatitis. pANCA is more specific for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss), which presents with asthma and eosinophilia and is often associated with conditions like ulcerative colitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and anti-GBM disease. If a patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and cavitary lesions on chest X-ray, sputum acid-fast stain would be the appropriate diagnostic test for tuberculosis. However, if the patient also has haematuria, arthralgia, sinusitis, and epistaxis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that have been persistent for a month. She also reports experiencing swollen and painful hands for the past two weeks. During the examination, the doctor observes a malar rash on her face. To identify the underlying condition, the doctor orders some blood tests. What is the most sensitive antibody test for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANA

      Explanation:

      Anti-Ro is less sensitive than ANA as it is only present in a smaller number of cases.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain, particularly in his hands and feet. The rheumatologist requested an x-ray of his hands and feet, which revealed abnormalities including a 'plantar spur' and 'pencil and cup' deformity. What do these x-ray findings suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by specific x-ray features known as ‘plantar spur’ and ‘pencil and cup’ deformity. In contrast, osteoarthritis displays ‘LOSS’ changes, including loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. Rheumatoid arthritis presents with ‘LESS’ changes, such as loss of joint space, erosions, soft bones, and soft tissue swelling. Ankylosing spondylitis is identified by sacroiliitis on x-ray.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 26 - A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and body aches. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports feeling increasingly tired for the past several months and experiencing joint and muscle pains. Her medical history indicates chronic heart failure, which is being treated with isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine. As hydralazine can lead to drug-induced lupus, what investigation would be most helpful in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      ALP can be rewritten as alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 6 months. He reports that the pain is particularly bad before he wakes up in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed increasing stiffness in his right wrist and left third metacarpal joints. Upon examination, you observe reduced spinal movements in lateral spinal flexion and rotation, as well as a positive Schober's test. The patient has not received any prior treatment for his back pain and has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy and NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) patients can often find relief from their symptoms through the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) alone, according to the most recent guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR). In fact, continuous NSAID therapy is recommended for those with active and persistent symptoms, as it has been shown to slow the progression of the disease. While systemic glucocorticoids are not effective for managing AS, intra-articular steroid injections may be helpful for peripheral joint or enthesitis issues. Of traditional disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), only sulphasalazine has been found to be effective for peripheral joint involvement, but it does not work for those with axial joint involvement. For those with insufficiently controlled symptoms, TNF-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept, infliximab, or adalimumab are recommended, without significant difference in efficacy between the three.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back pain over the past 3 months. He denies any history of trauma or prior fractures, does not smoke, consume excessive alcohol, and has never been treated with corticosteroids. Upon review, he reports experiencing reduced libido and delayed puberty for several years, as well as the absence of morning erections. Alongside routine investigations, what crucial test should be performed given the following DEXA scan results?

      Lumbar vertebrae (L2-L4): -6.9
      Femoral neck: -3.5
      Total hip: -4

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testosterone

      Explanation:

      When a man is suspected to have osteoporosis, it is important to check his testosterone levels through a blood test. This is because hypogonadism, which is a common cause of osteoporosis in men, can be classified as either hypergonadotropic or hypogonadotropic. Androgens play a twofold role in male bone metabolism by stimulating bone formation during puberty and preventing bone resorption during and after puberty. Other tests such as alpha fetoprotein, calcitonin, and serum protein electrophoresis are not useful in evaluating osteoporosis, but may be used to screen for other conditions such as Down syndrome, neural tube defects, thyroid cancer, and multiple myeloma.

      Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.

      There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.

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  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left heel pain, making walking painful and difficult. He reports experiencing morning stiffness lasting for about an hour, which improves with exercise throughout the day. He denies any prior history of similar symptoms and reports that they suddenly started about 4 months ago.

      During examination, the patient exhibits reduced lateral and forward flexion of the spine, tenderness upon palpation of the sacroiliac joints, and decreased chest expansion. What other conditions may be associated with this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical fibrosis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with a 3-month history of sudden-onset back pain that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. He has reduced lateral and forward flexion, chest expansion, and tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Additionally, he experiences heel pain and difficulty walking, which could indicate plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinopathy. These symptoms are indicative of ankylosing spondylitis (AS), which is the most likely diagnosis. AS is associated with apical fibrosis of the lungs, which may be due to reduced chest expansion and chronic interstitial inflammation over time.
      While aortic stenosis is not associated with AS, aortic regurgitation is. This is caused by the proliferation of smooth muscle cells or fibroblasts in AS, which occludes the proximal aorta vaso vasora, leading to aortitis and aortic regurgitation.
      Although conjunctivitis is commonly seen in patients with reactive arthritis, the ocular manifestation associated with AS patients is anterior uveitis. Keratoderma blennorrhagica, a rash that resembles psoriasis and occurs on the hands and feet, is associated with reactive arthritis, not AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his ankle. He reports that whilst playing basketball that evening he landed awkwardly on his left foot after jumping for a rebound. He felt a pop at the time of impact and his ankle immediately became swollen.

      On examination:

      Heart rate: 80/minute; Respiratory rate: 16/minute; Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg; Oxygen saturations: 99%; Temperature: 36.8 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.

      Left ankle: swollen, erythematosus and disaffirmed. Skin intact. Extremely tender upon palpation of the lateral malleolus. Difficulty weight-bearing and dorsiflexing the ankle. Sensation intact. Pulses present.

      Examination of the right ankle and lower limb is unremarkable.

      X-rays of the left ankle and foot are carried out which demonstrate a fractured lateral malleolus and associated dislocation of the ankle joint.

      What term is used to describe this pattern of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture

      Explanation:

      The patient has a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and a fracture of the radius. It is important to differentiate this from a Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal ulna and a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. To remember the difference, one can associate the name of the fracture with the bone that is broken: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles’ fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Boxer’s fracture, which involves a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal with volar displacement of the metacarpal head.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis. Her hands and feet have been swollen and painful for the past five years, particularly her metacarpophalangeal joints. The stiffness and pain are worse in the morning but improve with use throughout the day. Despite trying methotrexate and sulfasalazine, both treatments have been unsuccessful. The doctor decides to start her on a trial of TNF-inhibitors. What should be done before beginning treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Performing a chest X-ray before starting biologics for rheumatoid arthritis is crucial to check for TB as these medications can trigger reactivation of the disease. This is the correct answer. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary in this scenario as it is typically used for suspected abdominal perforation. While full blood count and liver function tests are essential monitoring tools for DMARDs, they are not required before initiating treatment due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful hand. Upon further examination, it was discovered that she had sustained a Colles' fracture. A DEXA scan was performed, revealing a T-score of -2.7 from L2-L4 and -2.8 in the right hip. The patient is currently taking omeprazole for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 85 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 1.95 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.55 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin D 115 nmol/L (50 - 250)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2.1 pmol/L (1.6 – 8.5)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Correct calcium level then commence alendronate

      Explanation:

      Before starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency. This is because bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone loss through osteoclastic activity, which is also responsible for increasing calcium levels in the body. Therefore, correcting calcium and vitamin D levels prior to treatment is necessary to ensure proper calcium regulation during therapy. Serum calcium levels should also be monitored during treatment. Alendronate is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, but it should only be started after correcting any hypocalcemia. Oral calcium tablets alone are not appropriate for this patient, as the cause of hypocalcemia should be considered first. In this case, the low magnesium level should be corrected, as magnesium is required for PTH secretion and sensitivity. Raloxifene is an alternative treatment option for osteoporosis, but it should only be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates. It is also important to note that proton pump inhibitors can increase the risk of osteoporosis and cause hypomagnesemia.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like ulcers that started 3 weeks ago after beginning a new medication. Which medication is the most probable cause of their symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is known to cause mucositis, while lithium can lead to thyrotoxicosis but not oral ulcers. Levothyroxine may also cause thyrotoxicosis but not mouth ulcers. Atorvastatin does not typically cause mouth ulcers, with the most common side effects being myalgia and skin flushing. It is important to note that only methotrexate has mucositis listed as a side effect in the BNF.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old male patient visits the rheumatology clinic with complaints of a dull...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits the rheumatology clinic with complaints of a dull ache in his lower back that typically starts in the morning and improves throughout the day. He also reports limited movement of his entire spine, particularly in the lumbar region. Additionally, he has been diagnosed with anterior uveitis. What test would be the most suitable to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic x-ray to identify sacroiliitis

      Explanation:

      The finding is not specific or sensitive as it pertains to the general population.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right knee. Upon conducting a joint aspirate, analysis of the synovial fluid reveals the presence of positively birefringent crystals. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with desferrioxamine for his iron overload. What would be the most suitable initial management for his musculoskeletal symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout, which is caused by an excess of calcium pyrophosphate levels in the body, has several risk factors including haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia, hypothyroidism, hypomagnesemia, and old age. This patient, who has haemochromatosis, is currently taking iron chelating agents to manage their iron overload. The recommended first line treatment for pseudogout is NSAIDs and colchicine. Allopurinol is not effective for pseudogout as it is not caused by uric acid overload. Methotrexate may be used for chronic pseudogout, but it is not typically the first line treatment. Sulfasalazine is not indicated for pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old man comes to see his doctor after a recent hospitalization for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to see his doctor after a recent hospitalization for a fall resulting in a fractured hip. He is now stable and wants to know how he can reduce his risk of future bone fractures. The doctor recommends attending strength and balance classes and prescribes medication to increase bone density. The patient reports consuming milk and yogurt daily.
      Prior to making any recommendations, the doctor orders a blood test, which reveals the following results:
      - Vitamin D: 34 ng/L (20-50)
      - Calcium: 4.8 mg/dL (4.8-5.6)
      - Phosphate: 3.2 mg/dL (2.8-4.5)

      What advice should the doctor give to the patient based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No vitamin or mineral supplementation is required

      Explanation:

      Before starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis, calcium supplementation should only be considered if the patient’s dietary intake is inadequate. In this case, the patient has sufficient calcium and vitamin D levels, so neither calcium nor vitamin D supplementation is necessary before beginning bisphosphonate medication.

      It is important to note that bisphosphonates can cause irritation in the esophagus, so patients should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Therefore, taking the medication before going to bed is not recommended as it may increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Additionally, bisphosphonates should be taken 30 minutes before meals in the morning to ensure proper absorption, so taking them with meals is not advised.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during winter. She reports that her hands change color from pale to blue and red in the morning. Despite using gloves and hand warmers, her symptoms have only slightly improved. She is interested in trying medications to alleviate her symptoms. Based on the probable diagnosis, which medication should be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is a recommended medication for treating Raynaud’s phenomenon. Patients with this condition should be advised to keep their hands warm and quit smoking. NICE suggests other treatments such as evening primrose oil, sildenafil, and prostacyclin for severe attacks or digital gangrene. Chemical or surgical sympathectomy may be helpful for those with severe disease. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, may worsen the condition as it commonly causes cold peripheries. Ibuprofen, an analgesic, may alleviate pain but not other symptoms. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also used for neuropathic pain but not specifically for Raynaud’s.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

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  • Question 38 - A 22-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of wrist pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of wrist pain after falling off her bike and landing on her outstretched left hand earlier in the day. Upon examination, there is significant swelling in her left wrist, and she experiences pain when attempting to abduct her wrist. The anatomical snuffbox is the most tender area upon palpation, leading the physician to suspect a scaphoid fracture. An x-ray of the wrist is taken, but it appears normal.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to orthopaedics and repeat imaging in 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid fractures may not be immediately visible on X-ray in most cases. However, failing to detect them can result in non-union and subsequent avascular necrosis of the proximal segment due to the retrograde blood supply of the scaphoid from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. According to the NICE guidelines, if a scaphoid fracture is suspected but imaging is inconclusive, repeat imaging should be conducted after 7 days. Physiotherapy is not the appropriate immediate management as further movement may cause more damage. Instead, immobilisation with a splint is more suitable at this time.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 39 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 40 - John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing stiffness in his fingers while playing guitar. He also notices that his fingers ache more than usual during and after playing. John used to work as a computer programmer and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His body mass index is 30 kg/m². What radiological findings are most indicative of John's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) and base of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by the involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, with the presence of osteophytes at the base of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joints being a typical finding. Lytic bone lesions are unlikely to be the cause of this presentation, as they are more commonly associated with metastasis or osteomyelitis. While rheumatoid arthritis can also involve the proximal interphalangeal joints and cause joint effusions, this woman’s age, history, and symptoms suggest that osteoarthritis is more likely. The pencil in cup appearance seen in psoriatic arthritis is not present in this case, as the patient does not report any skin lesions. Although most cases of osteoarthritis are asymptomatic, the patient’s symptoms suggest that some radiological changes have occurred.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 41 - A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful hand after falling on an outstretched hand. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, but the hand is neurovascularly intact. Scaphoid view x-rays of the hand show a fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical fixation

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal pole fractures of the scaphoid, as there is a high risk of avascular necrosis. Non-displaced fractures of the scaphoid and distal pole fractures can often be managed with a cast for 6 weeks, but displaced scaphoid fractures typically require surgery. It is important to note that analgesia alone is not sufficient for scaphoid fractures. Fasciotomy is only necessary for compartment syndrome, not for scaphoid fractures. Additionally, wrist or hand splints are not appropriate for proximal pole fractures – surgical fixation is required. Splints may be used for other types of scaphoid fractures, such as occult fractures of the distal pole, significant soft-tissue injury, or carpal-tunnel syndrome.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 42 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset knee pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset knee pain. He reports no other symptoms. The following observations and investigations were recorded:
      - Respiratory rate: 18/min
      - Oxygen saturations: 99% on air
      - Heart rate: 72/min
      - Blood pressure: 140/71 mmHg
      - Temperature: 36.6ºC
      - Hb: 144 g/L (135-180)
      - Platelets: 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC: 16.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - CRP: 42 mg/L (< 5)
      - X-ray right knee: Normal joint space. Prominent calcification of the menisci and articular cartilage
      - Synovial fluid microscopy and culture: White blood cells - 1700/mm³. No growth at 48 hours

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      The presence of chondrocalcinosis, or calcification of the articular cartilage, is a key clue that suggests pseudogout as the diagnosis. This is often seen as calcification of the menisci in the knee. Gout is a possible diagnosis, but the x-ray findings in this case are more indicative of pseudogout. Osteoarthritis is unlikely as it typically presents with chronic joint pain and different x-ray features. Reactive arthritis is also unlikely as it usually affects younger patients and is associated with other symptoms not present in this case.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 43 - A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache and jaw pain while eating breakfast. The medical team starts him on high dose prednisolone and performs a biopsy, which later shows normal results. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the prednisolone, regardless of the biopsy result

      Explanation:

      When a person shows symptoms that indicate giant cell arthritis, a temporal artery biopsy is usually recommended. However, skip lesions can occur in this condition, which may result in a normal biopsy. It is important to note that steroids should not be stopped as this condition can lead to blindness. It is best to perform the biopsy within 7 days of starting steroids.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 44 - A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting her left ankle while hiking in a mountainous national park. She has no significant medical history. X-rays were taken and the radiologist's report states that there is a minimally displaced, transverse fracture distally through the lateral malleolus, below the level of the talar dome, without talar shift. The medial malleolus is unaffected. What is the most suitable immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allow weight bearing as tolerated in a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot

      Explanation:

      According to the radiologist’s report, the patient has a stable Weber A fracture of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) that is minimally displaced and located below the tibiofibular syndesmosis. As a result, immobilization in a back slab is unnecessary, and reduction is not required. RICE treatment is not recommended as it does not provide adequate immobilization, which can be an effective form of pain relief. Instead, a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot is the appropriate management option as it allows weight-bearing while providing immobilization. Urgent surgical intervention is not necessary in this case due to the fracture’s stability and minimal displacement.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 45 - A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand. She reports that the pain is located at the base of her left thumb and is a constant ache that worsens with movement. The patient states that the pain has been progressively worsening over the past year. She has a medical history of gout in her big toe, which is managed with allopurinol. Her mother was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis five years ago, and she is concerned that she may also have this condition. On examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the left thumb base, and unilateral squaring of the left thumb is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history and clinical examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by squaring of the thumbs. This is due to bony outgrowths at the basilar joint of the thumb. Additionally, the pain experienced is typically unilateral and worsens with movement. De Quervain’s tendinosis may cause pain at the base of the thumb but does not result in thumb squaring. Gout is unlikely to present with thumb squaring and typically affects joints in the lower limb. Psoriatic arthritis typically affects distal joints and may present with skin and nail signs. Rheumatoid arthritis, despite a positive family history and similar pain history, does not explain the squaring of the thumb.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 46 - You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who was referred due to a family history of femoral fracture. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He is a former smoker, quit 10 years ago, drinks 5 units of alcohol per week and follows a vegetarian diet. His T-score is -2.5. Blood results are shown below.

      Hb 140g/L 120-160g/L

      WCC 7.0x109/l 4.0-11x109/l

      Na+ 138 mmol/L 135-145 mmol/L

      K+ 4.2mmol/L 3.5-5.0mmol/L

      Ca2+ 2.3mmol/L 2.2-2.6mmol/L (adjusted)

      Vitamin D 60 nmol/L >50 nmol/L

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      The recommended prescription for this patient with osteoporosis is bisphosphonate therapy, specifically alendronate or risedronate. Before starting treatment, it is important to ensure that calcium and vitamin D levels are replete, but supplementation should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate or if there is a risk of vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for older postmenopausal women with osteoporosis, as the risk vs benefit ratio is unfavourable.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 47 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing basketball. He reports hearing a loud 'pop' and experiencing severe pain in his right knee, causing him to fall to the ground. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee and feels like it may give out. Upon examination, the knee is visibly swollen. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The sudden popping sound that occurred during athletic activity followed by knee pain, swelling, and instability is indicative of an ACL injury. This is the most likely answer based on the given information. A ruptured patella tendon would result in a high riding patella, while a ruptured medial meniscus would cause catching or locking of the knee. A ruptured posterior cruciate ligament is less common and would require further testing to differentiate from an ACL injury. However, based on the scenario described, an ACL injury is the most probable cause.

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

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  • Question 48 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a sudden pulsating headache in her temples and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a sudden pulsating headache in her temples and scalp tenderness. She is promptly treated with corticosteroids and a decision is made to start her on a long-term dose-reducing regimen. The patient has a medical history of proximal muscle stiffness that is worse in the morning.

      Baseline investigations are conducted, revealing the following results:
      - Calcium: 2.33 mmol/L (normal range: 2.10 - 2.60 mmol/L)
      - Phosphate: 1.35 mmol/L (normal range: 0.74 - 1.40 mmol/L)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 78 mmol/L (normal range: 30 - 100 U/L)
      - 25-hydroxycholecalciferol: 13 mU/L (normal range: 20 - 50 ng/mL)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence high-dose vitamin D replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to address hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 49 - Sophie, a 19-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after a sports-related incident....

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 19-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after a sports-related incident. She reports experiencing discomfort in her left knee, which worsens when crouching. Upon examination, her knee appears swollen and tender to the touch. Additionally, there is a painful clicking sensation during McMurray's's test.
      What is the probable cause of injury in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twisting around flexed knee

      Explanation:

      A knee injury caused by twisting can lead to a tear in the meniscus, potentially accompanied by a sprain in the medial collateral ligament. The affected knee would be swollen and tender to the touch, and a positive McMurray’s’s test (painful clicking) would also be present. Patella dislocation, which can result from direct trauma to the knee, is indicated by a positive patellar apprehension test rather than a positive McMurray’s’s test. Falling onto a bent knee can cause injury to the posterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive posterior drawer test. Hyperextension knee injury, on the other hand, most commonly results in a rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive anterior drawer test. Repeated jumping and landing on hard surfaces can lead to patella tendinopathy or ‘jumper’s knee’, which causes anterior knee pain that worsens with exercise and jumping over a period of 2-4 weeks.

      Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms

      Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.

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  • Question 50 - A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic girdle. She reports feeling weak and struggling with her daily activities. The pain and stiffness are most severe in the morning and gradually improve throughout the day, lasting up to 5 hours after waking.

      During the examination, there is no apparent weakness in any of her limbs, but there is stiffness and pain in her proximal muscles. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and depression and is currently taking atorvastatin and sertraline. What investigation findings are expected, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP normal, CK normal

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that creatine kinase levels are normal in polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by morning stiffness and pain in the proximal muscles, which is caused by inflammation in the joint linings. As a result, ESR and CRP levels are elevated, but there are no autoantibodies associated with PMR, hence anti-CCP levels are normal. Since there is no muscle damage or weakness, CK levels remain normal. These are typical findings for a patient with PMR.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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