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  • Question 1 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Incorrect

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: A decrease in the molecular weight of the substance

      Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target cells

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child may have stopped growing. Which of the following hormones is chiefly responsible for cessation of growth and epiphyseal fusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Many factors are related with the stimulation of bone formation and growth, the pubertal growth spurt, epiphyseal senescence, and fusion, including nutritional, cellular, paracrine, and endocrine factors. An important cellular factor in these processes is the differentiation and aging of chondrocytes in the growth plate. Important paracrine factors include the many molecular pathways involved in chondrocyte differentiation, vascularization, and ossification. Oestrogen and the GH-IGF-I axis are important endocrine factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which...

    Incorrect

    • The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which chromosome is merlin located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 22

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 2, also known as schwannomin, is an autosomal dominant genetic disease caused by mutation of the merlin gene located on chromosome 22. Merlin is a tumour suppressor protein, which is responsible for controlling cell shape, growth and adhesion, and is predominantly found in nervous tissue. Its mutation increases the risk of tumour development especially bilateral vestibular schwannomas, the hallmark of neurofibromatosis 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl, known to have atopic eczema since she was six months...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl, known to have atopic eczema since she was six months old, presents because her parents are worried about several skin changes. They are concerned that they could be caused by topical steroid ointments. Which of the following is more likely to be present due to the disease, rather than as a side-effect of the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypopigmentation

      Explanation:

      Hypopigmentation is a side-effect that is more likely to be due to eczema rather than topical steroids therapy.All the options provided are potential side-effects of topical steroid therapy. They are observed when the potency of the steroid used is too high, or the amount of drug used is too much.. FTU or fingertip unit application is what is recommended, with caution, in delicate areas such as the face. Hypopigmentation can occur in eczema and is a post-inflammatory response, in contrast to the total depigmentation which is seen in vitiligo. Chronic eczema causes lichenification of skin, where the epidermis is thickened, and not skin atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition...

    Incorrect

    • What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition in an X-liked dominant condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance, sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However, in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes

      Explanation:

      Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including; atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol several times for relief. It is noted that he increases the volume of the television and has a symmetric loss of 40db on a hearing test. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis externa

      Explanation:

      Increasing the volume of the TV and the child’s loss of hearing may suggest that he has otitis media with effusion but the fever and the ear pain strongly points to otitis externa as the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behcet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results

      Explanation:

      Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12-24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and say mama and dada. He can understand what he is saying and can say one word. How is this child developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed speech

      Explanation:

      This child is experiencing delayed speech. By the age of 2, a child should be able to combine at least 2 words to make a very simple sentence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 14 - A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 15 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1-3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi; approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain -the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily; the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities -thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems -including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development -if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones -in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues – primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 19 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful, swollen joints. Physical examination revealed petechiae on his legs. Blood investigations were found to be normal.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6 years old and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients.Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks, and coffee ground emesis. The joints of his body are also painful. Blood testing reveals mild eosinophilia and a small rise in IgA levels. Urine testing reveals microscopic haematuria. Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)-mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doing up buttons unaided

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of mineÅ¥ and hisÅ¥ or hersÅ¥ – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like in,Å¥ on,Å¥ and underÅ¥ – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like I,Å¥ me,Å¥ we,Å¥ and youÅ¥ and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what twoÅ¥ means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection. Following a road traffic accident, he underwent a splenectomy a few months ago. What is the most likely organism causing the lower respiratory tract infection in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The organisms most likely to cause post-splenectomy sepsis include:- Streptococcus pneumoniae- Haemophilus influenzae- MeningococciEncapsulated organisms carry the most significant pathogenic risk following splenectomy. Hyposplenism:It may complicate certain medical conditions where splenic atrophy occurs or maybe the result of medical intervention such as splenic artery embolization and splenectomy for trauma. The diagnosis of hyposplenism is difficult, and while there may be peripheral markers of the splenectomised state (e.g. Howell-Jolly bodies), these are neither 100% sensitive or specific. The most sensitive test is a radionucleotide labelled red cell scan.It dramatically increases the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, particularly with encapsulated organisms. Since these organisms may be opsonized, but this then goes undetected at an immunological level due to loss of the spleen. For this reason, individuals are recommended to be vaccinated and have antibiotic prophylaxis.Key recommendations:- All those with hyposplenism or prior to an elective splenectomy should receive pneumococcal, Haemophilus type b and meningococcal type C vaccines. These should be administered two weeks before or two weeks following splenectomy. The vaccine schedule for meningococcal disease primarily consists of a dose of Men C and Hib at two weeks and then a dose of the MenACWY vaccine one month later. Those aged under two may require a booster at two years. A dose of pneumococcal polyvalent polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) is given at two weeks. A conjugate vaccine (PCV) is offered to young children. The PCV is more immunogenic but covers fewer serotypes. Boosting PPV is either guided by serological measurements (where available) or by routine boosting doses at five-yearly intervals.Annual influenza vaccination is recommended in all cases- Antibiotic prophylaxis is offered to all. The risk of post-splenectomy sepsis is highest immediately following splenectomy. Individuals with an inadequate response to pneumococcal vaccination are another high-risk group. High-risk individuals should be counselled to take penicillin or macrolide prophylaxis. Those at low risk may choose to discontinue therapy. All patients should be advised about taking antibiotics early in the case of intercurrent infections.- Asplenic individuals travelling to malaria-endemic areas are at high risk and should have both pharmacological and mechanical protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimal change GN

      Explanation:

      Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 27 - Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's...

    Incorrect

    • In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following does not cause painless gastrointestinal bleeding? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not cause painless gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception causes abdominal pain leading to painful lower GI bleeding. Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema.However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Most children have self-limiting and minor bleeds. However, children with massive bleeds will need emergency care and stabilisation.The various causes of lower GI bleeding in neonates include:- Anal fissures- Milk protein or soy allergy- Intussusception- Volvulus- Coagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-born- Arteriovenous malformations- Necrotising enterocolitis- Hirschsprung enterocolitis- Meckel’s diverticulitis- Drugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)The various causes of lower GI bleeding in children aged between 1 month to 2 years include:- Infection- Anal fissures- Intussusception- Malrotation with volvulus- Milk protein or soy allergy- Polyp- Meckel’s diverticulum- Duplication cyst- Foreign body- AV malformation- Colitis of immune deficiency- Tumour- HaematomaThe causes of lower GI bleeding in children older than 2 years include:- Polyp- Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)- Infectious diarrhoea (caused by Escherichia coli and Shigella)- Intussusception- Haemangiomas- Arteriovenous malformations- Vasculitis- Tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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