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  • Question 1 - A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?

      Your Answer: Lipoatrophy

      Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      181.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      112.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 66%

      Explanation:

      Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4; the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4; and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis. He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.Serum ceruloplasminWilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream; therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:- Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.- Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.- Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly; it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking. Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal. On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back. His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus. Pathophysiology:When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain. Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases. Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs. Clinical Presentation:Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve. Management:The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair. Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?...

    Incorrect

    • The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.Note:The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old child presented to the paediatric clinic with a swollen face, hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child presented to the paediatric clinic with a swollen face, hands and feet. She gained 2 kilograms over the last month despite poor feeding. What is the investigation of choice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary albumin

      Explanation:

      This is a case of nephrotic syndrome that can be confirmed by the presence of urinary albumin. It should be further investigated by a tissue sample to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral serology

      Explanation:

      Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward

      Explanation:

      As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn't gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas

      Explanation:

      One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Hypopigmentation refers to a decrease in the amount of the pigment melanin in the skin, which leads to an abnormally lighter skin tone. Hypopigmentation can be generalized or localized. Generalized hypopigmentation occurs in albinism or can be ethnicity related. Causes of localized hypopigmentation include Incontinentia pigmenti, Lichen planus, Tuberous sclerosis, Piebaldism, vitiligo, and leprosy. Celiac disease is not associated with hypopigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele

      Explanation:

      Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Erythema infectiosum is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema infectiosum is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus serology

      Explanation:

      Erythema infectiosum is an acute viral illness caused by Parvovirus B19. It is usually a mild flu-like illness and produces a maculopapular rash, appearing initially on the cheeks and then spreading towards extremities. The rash usually spares the palms and soles and gives a slapped appearance to the cheeks. It can be described as having a fishnet appearance on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization; none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3-5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8-1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally; the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations -from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Passmed