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  • Question 1 - A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years, and now receives a mixture of bottle feeds and breast milk. The mother of the child wants advice on how to wean the baby. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give the mother?

      Your Answer: She should wait for the baby to grow teeth before introducing solids

      Correct Answer: Infant led weaning can be tried first if the mother is happy with this

      Explanation:

      At the age of 6 months, children can begin to be weaned off breastmilk and formula feeds. One healthy and inexpensive way to do this is through infant led weaning as opposed to the conventional spoon feeding method. Children are able to enjoy a variety of soft finger foods even before they grow teeth, so all food does not need to be pureed or sweet. Children should however not be given cow’s milk until the age of 1 year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 2 - A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures....

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 3 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 4 - An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9;22)-Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15;17)-Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14;18)-Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11;14)-Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 5 - At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together

      Explanation:

      By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers; they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 6 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells. Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen. Basophils are not present. The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given...

    Incorrect

    • In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fisher's exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest infections. The mother says she has a productive cough with greenish sputum. Chest x-ray shows multiple ringed shadows and thickening of the bronchial walls at both bases. The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      The x-ray is suggestive of bronchiectasis. The most probable aetiology especially considering recurrent chest infections at such a young age is cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 11 - A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl's twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype

      Explanation:

      HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass; an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 14 - A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age; a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts; pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 15 - A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what's the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce

      Explanation:

      An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 16 - A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level

      Explanation:

      A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 18 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 19 - A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)

      Explanation:

      The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months – 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 – 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 21 - This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 +...

    Incorrect

    • This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 x height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions

      Explanation:

      The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 22 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest wobbleť on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby's oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE -5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 25 - Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of...

    Incorrect

    • Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion

      Explanation:

      Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (α-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Cafe-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:Neurofibromatosis type IMcCune-Albright syndromeLegius syndromeTuberous sclerosisFanconi anaemiaIdiopathicAtaxia-telangiectasiaBasal cell nevus syndromeBenign congenital skin lesionBloom syndromeChediak-Higashi syndromeCongenital nevusGaucher diseaseHunter syndromeMaffucci syndromeMultiple mucosal neuroma syndromeNoonan syndromePulmonary StenosisSilver-Russell syndromeWatson syndromeWiskott-Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Explanation:

      Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assayBeta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stopped spontaneously after 5 minutes. There was no preceding aura. His parents recall that he had a fever for the past three days that resolved after taking paracetamol. On examination, he was found to be febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, and throat examination revealed bilateral exudative tonsillitis. He has previously been treated for febrile seizures, once at the age of 16 months, subsequently at three years of age, and again at 5 years. Detailed family history revealed that his mother also suffered from repeated febrile seizures when she was young. His growth and development are up to age, and he is an above-average student at school. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Febrile seizure plus

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be febrile seizure plus syndrome.Rationale:All of the answers are possible epileptic conditions that this 8-year-old may have. However, the background history of febrile seizure together with a family history of febrile seizures, in a boy who is growing well, with no developmental delay, make febrile seizures plus the most appropriate differential diagnosis for this patient.Other options:- Epilepsy with myoclonic absences are often challenging to treat and may continue into adulthood. There is a male predominance (70%). At presentation, approximately half of cases have a learning disability. An absence seizure is common in this diagnosis and usually occurs daily.- Juvenile absence epilepsy may present with initial generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy followed by absences after that. They are also seen with a background of febrile seizure, and the peak age of presentation is usually at eight years old. Given the current history and lack of absences, this diagnosis is least likely.- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy usually presents with a myoclonic seizure, although the presentation maybe with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. It occurs more frequently. Background history of febrile fit may be present in 5-10% of the cases.- Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with aura, and that is not seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 29 - A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.67 m

      Explanation:

      The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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