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  • Question 1 - A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: 30% of cases are bilateral

      Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys

      Explanation:

      Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head

      Correct Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins

      Explanation:

      Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma

      When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.

      An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.

      Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.

      Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice after her daughter was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice after her daughter was diagnosed with chickenpox 10 days ago. The daughter developed a widespread vesicular rash. The woman is feeling fine, but she is 16 weeks pregnant and cannot recall ever having had chickenpox. An immunoglobulin test confirms this. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give oral acyclovir and varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman who is not immune to chickenpox is exposed to the virus, it is crucial to offer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days of the exposure to reduce the risk of foetal varicella-zoster syndrome and potential complications for the mother. However, if the woman is under 20 weeks pregnant, oral acyclovir is not recommended as there is limited evidence for its efficacy in this situation. Giving both VZIG and oral acyclovir is impractical and inappropriate, especially since the woman has already been exposed to chickenpox. If the woman develops chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation, acyclovir may be considered, but VZIG should still be given to reduce the chance of severe infection. It is important to note that VZIG should be given before symptoms develop and is only effective up to 10 days post-exposure. Therefore, waiting for symptoms to appear before giving VZIG is not recommended.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Book the child for an elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure

      Correct Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.

      The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.

      Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.

      In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a nightclub altercation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a nightclub altercation where he was hit on the side of the head with a bottle. His friend reports that he lost consciousness briefly but then regained it before losing consciousness again. The CT head scan upon admission reveals an intracranial haemorrhage. Based on the history, what is the most probable type of intracranial haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Patients who have an intracranial extradural haematoma may go through a period of lucidity where they briefly regain consciousness after the injury before slipping into a coma.

      Extradural haematomas are usually caused by low-impact blunt-force head injuries. Although patients may regain consciousness initially, they may eventually fall into a coma as the haematoma continues to grow.

      On the other hand, acute subdural haematomas are typically caused by high-impact injuries such as severe falls or road traffic accidents. These injuries are often accompanied by diffuse injuries like diffuse axonal injury, and patients are usually comatose from the beginning, without experiencing the lucid interval seen in extradural haematomas.

      Contusions are also a common consequence of traumatic head injury. Over the course of two to three days following a head injury, contusions may expand and swell due to oedema, a process known as blossoming. This process is slower than the neurological deterioration seen in extradural haematomas, which typically occurs within minutes to hours.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy weighing 26 kg has been diagnosed with epilepsy and needs...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy weighing 26 kg has been diagnosed with epilepsy and needs to be prescribed an anticonvulsant medication called Fitamil. The medication must be taken twice daily and the dosage is based on weight. The loading dose is 4 mg/kg and the maintenance dose is 0.8 mg/kg to be given every 12 hours. What is the correct dosing regimen for this child?

      Your Answer: Loading dose of 100 mg, maintenance dose of 20 mg 12 hourly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Body Weight and Dosing Interval in Drug Prescription

      Many drugs require prescription based on body weight, especially in paediatrics. The initial dose, known as the loading dose, is calculated based on the weight of the patient. The maintenance dose is then determined based on the half life of the drug, which follows first order kinetics. Regular dosing is necessary to prevent total elimination of the drug from the body.

      The dosing interval is chosen by the manufacturer according to the half life of the drug. It is important to maintain adequate drug levels in the blood to achieve maximal efficacy and reduce the risk of further seizures, especially in diseases like epilepsy. The concentration of the drug should be sufficient to maintain an anticonvulsant effect between doses, even if a dose is late or missed.

      To achieve therapeutic concentrations of the drug, repeated dosing may be necessary. In some cases, a loading dose is used to attain high concentrations of the drug quickly. The timing of the dosing interval is also crucial in achieving therapeutic concentrations. Overall, proper dosing based on body weight and dosing interval is essential in ensuring the effectiveness and safety of drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman has experienced a stillbirth and wants to stop lactation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has experienced a stillbirth and wants to stop lactation. What medication should be used for this purpose?

      Your Answer: L-dopa

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Lactation Suppression

      Lactation is stimulated by the release of prolactin, and drugs that decrease prolactin levels are effective in suppressing lactation. Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are the most commonly used drugs for this purpose. On the other hand, drugs like domperidone and amitriptyline that increase serum prolactin levels are not effective in suppressing lactation.

      Ondansetron is an antiemetic drug that works by blocking the 5-HT system. It is not used for lactation suppression as it does not affect prolactin levels. L-dopa, another drug that can reduce prolactin levels, is not commonly used due to its side effects. It often causes nausea in patients, making dopamine agonists a preferred choice for lactation suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain over the past two weeks. She describes a deep pain in the central part of her abdomen that tends to improve after eating and worsens approximately two hours after the meal. The pain does not radiate. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate and anti-inflammatory medications. She is also a heavy smoker. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastric region without guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are present. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Epigastric Pain: Peptic Ulcer Disease, Appendicitis, Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, and Pancreatitis

      Epigastric pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s risk factors for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use and heavy smoking make peptic ulcer disease (PUD) in the duodenum the most likely diagnosis. Other potential causes of epigastric pain include appendicitis, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, diverticulitis, and pancreatitis. However, the patient’s symptoms and clinical signs do not align with these conditions. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which is found to be secondary to Legionella. She is hypoxic and drowsy and has an acute kidney injury. She is intubated and ventilated and transferred to the Intensive Care Unit. Despite optimal organ support, her respiratory system continues to deteriorate, requiring high fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) (0.8) to maintain oxygen saturations of 88–92%. A chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates. A diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is made.
      Which of the following is a recognised component of the management strategy for ARDS?

      Your Answer: Low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

      Correct Answer: Lung-protective ventilation

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Mechanical Ventilation in ARDS Patients

      Mechanical ventilation is a crucial intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). However, there are specific strategies that should be employed to ensure the best outcomes for these patients.

      Lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume (≤ 6 ml/kg predicted body weight) and a plateau pressure of ≤ 30 cmH2O is associated with a reduced risk of hospital mortality and barotrauma. In contrast, mechanical ventilation with high tidal volume is associated with an increased incidence of ventilator-induced lung injury.

      In 2000, a large randomized controlled trial demonstrated the benefits of ventilation with low tidal volumes in patients with ARDS. Therefore, it is essential to use lower tidal volumes to prevent further lung damage.

      While low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is not a recognized management strategy, higher levels of PEEP can benefit patients with more severe ARDS. High PEEP aims to keep the lung open during the entire respiratory cycle, improving alveolar recruitment, reducing lung stress and strain, and preventing atelectrauma. However, a combination of individual PEEP titration following an alveolar recruitment maneuver could lead to better outcomes in more severe ARDS patients.

      Finally, prone positioning for at least 12 hours per day can be used in patients with moderate/severe ARDS and is associated with a reduction in mortality when combined with lung-protective ventilation. Therefore, patients should be maintained supine or prone, and prone positioning should be considered in appropriate cases.

      In conclusion, the best practices for mechanical ventilation in ARDS patients include lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume, higher levels of PEEP in severe cases, and prone positioning when appropriate. These strategies can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      21
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
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