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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that only one copy of the abnormal gene is needed to develop the condition. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is a recessively inherited disorder. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, they are said to have thalassaemia minor, while those with two copies develop thalassaemia major. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterized by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Finally, Down’s syndrome is another chromosomal disorder that affects individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as...

    Correct

    • You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as part of your geriatrics rotation.
      Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the endocrine system in individuals over 70 years old?

      Your Answer: Increased incidence of auto-immune disease

      Explanation:

      Ageing and Hormonal Changes: Common Issues in Older Adults

      As we age, our bodies undergo various changes that can lead to hormonal imbalances and health issues. One common problem is an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, which can be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. However, immunosuppression is not a normal part of ageing.

      Another issue is azoospermia in men, which refers to the absence of sperm in semen. While postmenopausal women are infertile, over 50% of men over 70 years old still have the ability to father children.

      In both men and women, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) are common in the early postmenopausal period. However, postmenopausal women typically have high levels of FSH and LH, while older men have normal levels.

      Additionally, older adults may experience low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and morning cortisol, which are typically normal but may be reduced due to a decreased stress response. These hormonal changes can contribute to various health issues and should be monitored by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old primigravida gives birth to her male infant at 40+1 weeks via...

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    • A 30-year-old primigravida gives birth to her male infant at 40+1 weeks via ventouse-assisted vaginal delivery. The estimated blood loss is 650ml and her uterus is well contracted. An episiotomy was performed during delivery, and a tear involving perineal skin and muscle with less than 50% damage to the external anal sphincter is found on postpartum vaginal examination. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Perineal tear repair in theatre

      Explanation:

      Repair of third degree perineal tears should be carried out in a theatre by a clinician who has received appropriate training. This is because category 3 and 4 tears pose a risk of infection and have a significant impact on the patient’s health. Poor healing of perineal wounds can lead to faecal incontinence, which is a potential complication of grade 3 and 4 tears. It is advisable to pack the perineal wound for haemostasis before repairing the tear, as this will help achieve better haemostasis with sutures. Healing of perineal tears by secondary intent is not recommended, as it can result in poor healing, infection, and faecal incontinence. Additionally, the vascular nature of the perineum and anus increases the likelihood of ongoing haemorrhage if the wound is not healed. In cases of category 1 and 2 tears (involving the skin only or skin and perineal muscle), perineal tear repair can be performed immediately on the maternity ward if the clinician feels comfortable and there is adequate lighting.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are urgently called to the Surgical Ward to assess a 45-year-old man...

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    • You are urgently called to the Surgical Ward to assess a 45-year-old man who has just returned from Theatre after a stoma reversal. The nursing staff have reported that he appears drowsy, and on assessment, his blood pressure is 70/42 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and temperature is 36.7 °C. On examination, he is difficult to rouse and has a thready pulse. Chest sounds are clear, with normal heart sounds and soft calves. He groans when you palpate his abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Post-Operative Shock

      Post-operative shock can occur for various reasons, including blood loss, infection, and pulmonary embolism. In this scenario, a patient has undergone extensive abdominal surgery and is experiencing significant hypotension and tachycardia, making a post-operative bleed highly likely. Here are some appropriate investigations for this patient:

      Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch: A full blood count can help identify a drop in hemoglobin, while crossmatch is necessary as the patient may require a transfusion.

      Chest X-ray: This investigation is not necessary as there is no indication of chest-related issues.

      Computerised tomography (CT) of abdomen: If the patient can be stabilized, a CT scan can help determine if there is an intra-abdominal cause for the deterioration.

      D-dimer: This investigation is not necessary as there is no strong suspicion of pulmonary embolism.

      Return to Theatre for diagnostic laparotomy: This is a possibility if the patient cannot be stabilized on the ward and there is a strong suspicion of an intra-abdominal bleed. However, baseline bloods, including crossmatch, would be required before surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

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    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain and pain in his left shoulder. He had spent the previous 2 h shoveling snow, but had to stop because of the pain. He admits to several prior episodes of chest pain under similar circumstances. No ST segment changes are seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The patient is given sublingual nitroglycerin, which relieves his pain, and is admitted for an overnight stay. The following morning, serum cardiac enzymes are within normal limits and no ECG changes are seen.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stable (typical) angina

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Angina

      When a patient presents with chest pain, it is important to differentiate between the different types of angina. In the case of a patient who has experienced chest pain triggered by heavy physical labor without characteristic ECG changes, and without rise in serum cardiac enzymes, it is likely that they are experiencing stable (typical) angina. This is not the patient’s first episode, and the pain is not becoming progressively worse with less severe triggers, ruling out unstable (crescendo) angina. Additionally, the fact that the pain was triggered by physical activity rather than occurring at rest rules out Prinzmetal variant angina. Subendocardial infarction and transmural infarction can also be ruled out as both would result in elevated cardiac enzyme levels and characteristic ECG changes, such as ST depression or ST elevation and Q waves, respectively. Therefore, based on the patient’s presentation, stable (typical) angina is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently...

    Correct

    • A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently collapsing on the street. He is immediately transported to the emergency department. What acid-base disturbance would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Opiate Injection and Respiratory Acidosis

      When a person injects opiates, it can lead to respiratory depression. This means that the person’s breathing will slow down, causing an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the body. As a result, the person may experience respiratory acidosis, which is a condition where the blood becomes too acidic due to the buildup of CO2. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, drowsiness, and shortness of breath. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if someone is experiencing these symptoms after injecting opiates. Proper treatment can help prevent further complications and ensure a safe recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
      With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sarah, a 28-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with right-sided abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 28-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with right-sided abdominal pain. The pain radiates to the anterior hip and is relieved by flexing her hips to touch knees to chest. Sarah denies any recent trauma. She has a history of ulcerative colitis and takes regular mesalamine.

      On examination, her temperature is 38.0ÂșC. She mobilises across the room with a limp and has pain on extension and internal rotation of her right hip.

      Bloods show:
      Lab test Result Reference range
      WBC 14.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      ESR 18 mm/hr < (15)
      CRP 12 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate investigation at this stage?

      Your Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      When a psoas abscess is suspected, CT abdomen is the recommended diagnostic test. Tom has presented with right-sided abdominal pain that is relieved by hip flexion, along with a positive psoas sign and a low-grade fever, which are indicative of psoas abscess. Although MRI has a similar sensitivity to contrast CT, it is less accessible. Retrocaecal appendicitis is less likely based on Tom’s history and examination. While abdominal ultrasound is preferred for investigating appendicitis in children and pregnant women, abdominopelvic CT is preferred for other adults. Hip x-ray is not the most useful test in this case, as osteomyelitis or avascular necrosis are less likely based on Tom’s clinical presentation. Colonoscopy is not the most appropriate test to order next, as his symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a flare-up of his Crohn’s disease.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the...

    Correct

    • During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the cystic artery typically a branch of, supplying the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The Hepatic Arteries and Their Branches

      The liver is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients. This is provided by the hepatic arteries and their branches. Here are some important branches of the hepatic arteries:

      1. Right Hepatic Artery: This artery supplies the right side of the liver and is the main branch of the hepatic artery proper. It usually gives rise to the cystic artery, which supplies the gallbladder.

      2. Gastroduodenal Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and supplies the pylorus of the stomach and the proximal duodenum.

      3. Right Gastric Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach.

      4. Hepatic Proper Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and divides into the right and left hepatic arteries. These arteries supply the right and left sides of the liver, respectively.

      5. Left Hepatic Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the left side of the liver.

      In summary, the hepatic arteries and their branches play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
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