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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She is worried that her SLE is flaring up and has a tendency to develop health anxiety due to her condition. As lupus can affect multiple organs and systems, she frequently visits her GP practice whenever she experiences new symptoms. The GP conducts some blood tests, which reveal the following results:
- Hb: 111 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- MCV: 86 fl (84-96)
- WBC: 12.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 118 ”mol/L (55-120)
- eGFR: 90 ml/min/1.73mÂČ (>/= 90)
- CRP: 88 mg/L (<5)
- ESR: 34 mm/hr (0-20)
What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Flare of her SLE
Correct Answer: Underlying infection
Explanation:If a patient with SLE has an elevated CRP, it could indicate the presence of an infection. The patient in question does not have AKI and her kidney function is normal. Although she has a slight normocytic anemia, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms. Fibromyalgia is common in SLE patients, but the elevated CRP in this case suggests an underlying infection rather than fibromyalgia. The patient’s elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels indicate the presence of an infection, rather than a lupus flare.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old with a history of type 2 diabetes who has reported experiencing occasional tingling in her right 4th and 5th fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, leading to numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is typically caused by entrapment of the nerve at the elbow and is more common in individuals with diabetes. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist and affects the first three fingers and part of the 4th finger. While it is possible for multiple sclerosis to cause similar symptoms, it is less likely. Alcohol abuse and… (sentence incomplete)
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that extends to the buttocks for the past 3 months. The pain is most severe upon waking up, but cycling seems to alleviate it. The patient denies any injury but is an avid cyclist. Additionally, the patient experiences fatigue. The patient had Chlamydia and was treated with doxycycline 8 months ago. The patient has a history of anxiety and does not take any regular medication, but ibuprofen helps alleviate the pain. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Exercise is typically beneficial for patients with inflammatory back pain, such as those with ankylosing spondylitis. This condition is more common in males and presents with symptoms such as morning stiffness, back pain lasting over 3 months, and improvement with exercise. Inflammation can also affect the sacroiliac joints, causing buttock pain, and patients may experience fatigue. Lumbar spinal stenosis is an unlikely differential as it presents with back and buttock pain due to nerve compression, and patients may have leg weakness. Psoriatic arthritis can also cause spondyloarthritis, but it typically presents with peripheral arthritis and/or dactylitis, and patients may have a history of psoriasis. Reactive arthritis is also an unlikely differential as it typically presents 1-4 weeks after infection, and patients may have other symptoms such as enthesitis, peripheral arthritis, conjunctivitis, skin lesions, and urethritis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As an FY2 in the Emergency Department, you have assessed a 65-year-old female patient who is experiencing urticaria and breathing difficulties following a recent change in medication. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, and refractory rheumatoid arthritis. She is also known to have allergies to pollen, aspirin, and plaster adhesives. Which medication is the most likely cause of her current presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Patients who have a hypersensitivity to aspirin may also experience an allergic reaction to sulfasalazine. This is important to note as sulfasalazine is a DMARD used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, particularly in cases where other treatments have not been effective. The patient in this case has refractory rheumatoid arthritis, indicating that the recent medication change is likely a rheumatic agent.
While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema and difficulty breathing, it is not typically associated with urticaria. This is because drug-induced angioedema is usually caused by bradykinin, not histamine.
Cetirizine is an antihistamine that can provide relief for symptoms such as urticaria, histamine-mediated angioedema, and anaphylactic reactions.
Omeprazole is a PPI that is used to treat conditions like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease by suppressing acidic gastric secretions. While skin reactions can occur with the use of omeprazole, bronchospasm is considered rare or very rare according to the BNF. In this case, the most likely culprit for the patient’s allergic reaction is sulfasalazine due to their known aspirin allergy.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain in her right hand that has been bothering her for the past 6 months. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the distal interphalangeal joints of her right hand. An X-ray reveals erosions in the center of the distal interphalangeal joints of her right hand, which are described as having a pencil in cup appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue, widespread musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and swollen lumps in her neck and armpit. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 107g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 140* 109/L (150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 3.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.0mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 12.5mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 165”mol/L (55-120)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 115mg/L (<5)
- Antinuclear antibodies: Positive
- Anti-double-stranded DNA: Positive
As a result of her abnormal renal function results, a renal biopsy is conducted and examined under electron microscopy, revealing no mesangial deposits. Based on her likely diagnosis, what medication should be prescribed to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The recommended treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hydroxychloroquine, which is a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD). A patient presenting with symptoms such as fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and lymphadenopathy, along with positive results for antinuclear antibodies and double-stranded DNA antibodies, may be diagnosed with SLE. Hydroxychloroquine works by increasing lysosomal pH in antigen-presenting cells, which interferes with activity and downregulates the inappropriate autoimmune response. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent used in cancer treatment, is not appropriate for SLE management unless there is renal involvement. Methotrexate, another DMARD, can be used as a steroid-sparing agent in conjunction with prednisolone if the patient’s symptoms are not controlled by NSAIDs and hydroxychloroquine. Prednisolone, a corticosteroid, is typically reserved for patients with internal organ involvement or if their symptoms are not controlled by other medications due to the long-term risks associated with steroid use.
Managing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various organs and tissues in the body. To manage SLE, several treatment options are available. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can help relieve joint pain and inflammation. It is also important to use sunblock to prevent skin damage and flare-ups triggered by sun exposure.
Hydroxychloroquine is considered the treatment of choice for SLE. It can help reduce disease activity and prevent flares. However, if SLE affects internal organs such as the kidneys, nervous system, or eyes, additional treatment may be necessary. In such cases, prednisolone and cyclophosphamide may be prescribed to manage inflammation and prevent organ damage.
To summarize, managing SLE involves a combination of medication and lifestyle changes. NSAIDs and sunblock can help manage symptoms, while hydroxychloroquine is the preferred treatment for reducing disease activity. If SLE affects internal organs, additional medication may be necessary to prevent organ damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that his fingers turn white and become numb when exposed to cold, and then turn blue upon rewarming. His medical history is unremarkable, and he works in construction. On examination, there is no evidence of digital ulcers, calcinosis, chilblains, rash, or arthralgia. His blood results show a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelet count of 260 * 109/L, WBC count of 6.2 * 109/L, and ESR of 10mm/hr. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of vibrating tools
Explanation:Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.
Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral side of her left thigh for the past two weeks. The pain has been gradually worsening and extends downwards to just above her left knee. She reports that the pain is more intense when she sleeps on her left side and sometimes wakes her up at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes point tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the left hip, which triggers the radiation of the pain down the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when the hip is passively externally rotated. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a lump on the back of his right thigh that has been increasing in size for the past four months. The patient reports that the lump has become excruciatingly painful over the last two weeks. Upon ordering a radiograph, the results show a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right femur with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a malignant tumour occurring in the diaphysis of the pelvis and long bones, which mainly affects children and adolescents and presents with severe pain and an onion skin appearance on X-ray, is Ewing’s sarcoma. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein being a key finding. Chondrosarcoma, osteoma, and osteochondroma are unlikely diagnoses as they present differently and affect different age groups.
Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his ankle. He reports that whilst playing basketball that evening he landed awkwardly on his left foot after jumping for a rebound. He felt a pop at the time of impact and his ankle immediately became swollen.
On examination:
Heart rate: 80/minute; Respiratory rate: 16/minute; Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg; Oxygen saturations: 99%; Temperature: 36.8 ÂșC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
Left ankle: swollen, erythematosus and disaffirmed. Skin intact. Extremely tender upon palpation of the lateral malleolus. Difficulty weight-bearing and dorsiflexing the ankle. Sensation intact. Pulses present.
Examination of the right ankle and lower limb is unremarkable.
X-rays of the left ankle and foot are carried out which demonstrate a fractured lateral malleolus and associated dislocation of the ankle joint.
What term is used to describe this pattern of injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture
Explanation:The patient has a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and a fracture of the radius. It is important to differentiate this from a Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal ulna and a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. To remember the difference, one can associate the name of the fracture with the bone that is broken: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles’ fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Boxer’s fracture, which involves a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal with volar displacement of the metacarpal head.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a chronic and progressive history of photophobia, flashing lights, and reading difficulties over several months. She has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and is currently taking hydroxychloroquine. On fundoscopy, there is central depigmentation of a macula surrounded by thin speckled rings of hyperpigmentation, but otherwise normal. She denies any other symptoms and has not made any changes to her medication regimen. However, she has missed all of her follow-up appointments for the past 2 years. What is the underlying cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, leading to a ‘bull’s-eye maculopathy’ in its advanced form. This damage is irreversible and may continue to progress for over a year even after discontinuing the drug. Therefore, it is crucial to regularly monitor for early changes to prevent irreversible visual deterioration. The patient’s eye examination did not reveal any signs of dry age-related macular degeneration or cytomegalovirus retinitis. Lupus retinopathy is also unlikely as the patient has no other symptoms of poorly controlled lupus, and there were no signs of cotton wool spots, microaneurysms, hard exudates, or neovascularization on fundoscopy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas that appeared two weeks ago. She was diagnosed with primary tuberculosis four months ago and is currently undergoing treatment with rifampicin and isoniazid. What antibodies are expected to be present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-histone antibodies is associated with drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely cause of the symmetrical annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas in this patient who is currently taking isoniazid. Anti-Ro antibodies are not relevant as they are commonly associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, while anti-centromere antibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which is less likely in this patient given her age and clinical presentation.
Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in the left hemithorax after a fall at home. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there is visible bruising and tenderness upon palpation over the left hemithorax. A chest x-ray confirms a complete disruption of the bony contour of the left 6th rib, without disruption of the pleura or lung parenchyma. What is the most appropriate management for this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative management with adequate analgesia
Explanation:Simple rib fractures are typically treated conservatively, with appropriate pain relief measures such as NSAIDs, opioids, and intercostal nerve blocks. It is crucial to manage pain effectively to prevent breathing difficulties and complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Rib belts should not be used as they can hinder respiratory function. Chest x-rays do not reveal any intrathoracic complications like haemothorax or pneumothorax, so chest drains are unnecessary. IV bisphosphonates are not useful in treating traumatic rib fractures, but oral bisphosphonates may be considered later on to address any loss of bone mineral density in the patient.
A rib fracture is a break in any of the bony segments of a rib. It is commonly caused by blunt trauma to the chest wall, but can also be due to underlying diseases that weaken the bone structure of the ribs. Rib fractures can occur singly or in multiple places along the length of a rib and may be associated with soft tissue injuries to the surrounding muscles or the underlying lung. Risk factors include chest injuries in major trauma, osteoporosis, steroid use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and cancer metastases.
The most common symptom of a rib fracture is severe, sharp chest wall pain, which is often more severe with deep breaths or coughing. Chest wall tenderness over the site of the fractures and visible bruising of the skin may also be present. Auscultation of the chest may reveal crackles or reduced breath sounds if there is an underlying lung injury. In some cases, pain and underlying lung injury can result in a reduction in ventilation, causing a drop in oxygen saturation. Pneumothorax, a serious complication of a rib fracture, can present with reduced chest expansion, reduced breath sounds, and hyper-resonant percussion on the affected side. Flail chest, a consequence of multiple rib fractures, can impair ventilation of the lung on the side of injury and may require treatment with invasive ventilation and surgical fixation to prevent complications.
Diagnostic tests for rib fractures include a CT scan of the chest, which shows the fractures in 3D as well as the associated soft tissue injuries. Chest x-rays may provide suboptimal views and do not provide any information about the surrounding soft tissue injury. In cases of pathological fractures secondary to tumour metastases, a CT scan to look for a primary (if not already identified) is also required. Management of rib fractures involves conservative treatment with good analgesia to ensure breathing is not affected by pain. Inadequate ventilation may predispose to chest infections. Nerve blocks can be considered if the pain is not controlled by normal analgesia. Surgical fixation can be considered to manage pain if this is still an issue and the fractures have failed to heal following 12 weeks of conservative management. Flail chest segments are the only form of rib fractures that should be urgently discussed with cardiothoracic surgery as they can impair ventilation and result in significant lung trauma. Lung complications such as pneumothorax or haemothorax should be managed as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C4
Explanation:During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is being evaluated by his GP due to gradually worsening lower back pain. The pain is more severe in the morning and after prolonged periods of inactivity. He has also experienced increasing fatigue over the past 6 months. The GP prescribed regular NSAIDs, which resulted in significant symptom improvement. An x-ray of the lumbar spine was conducted, revealing indications of ankylosing spondylitis.
What is the most probable finding on the patient's x-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis can be identified through x-ray findings such as subchondral erosions, which are typically seen in the corners of vertebral bodies and on the iliac side of the sacroiliac joint. This is usually preceded by subchondral sclerosis, which can lead to squaring of the lumbar vertebrae and a characteristic bamboo spine appearance. It is important to note that juxta-articular osteoporosis, loss of vertebral height, and osteopenia are not typical x-ray findings for ankylosing spondylitis.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of experiencing arthralgia and swelling in the MCP joints of both hands for the past six months. Upon examination, boggy swelling is observed in the third, fourth, and fifth MCP joints bilaterally, along with erythema and mild tenderness upon palpation. No significant deformities are noted, and she has normal motor function and range of motion in both hands. The following are the results of her investigations:
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody titre 48U (<20)
What are the most probable X-ray findings for this patient's hands?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteopaenia
Explanation:Juxta-articular osteopenia is an early X-ray finding commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who presents with symmetrical arthropathy affecting multiple hand joints and a positive anti-CCP titre. Joint subluxation is an unlikely finding on initial X-rays at the time of diagnosis, and peri-articular erosions and subchondral cysts are typically seen in progressive disease rather than at the early stages.
X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.
As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.
It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Vietnamese man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 weeks. He denies experiencing any urinary symptoms and has already taken nitrofurantoin prescribed by his GP, but it did not alleviate his pain. During the physical examination, he has a fever of 38.4 °C, and his pain worsens when his left hip is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliopsoas abscess
Explanation:The combination of fever, back pain, and pain when extending the hip suggests the presence of an iliopsoas abscess. The patient may also exhibit a limp while walking. Iliopsoas abscesses can be caused by primary or secondary factors. While Pott’s disease, a form of tuberculosis affecting the vertebrae, could explain the back pain and fever, the examination findings are more indicative of an iliopsoas abscess. Mechanical back pain would not typically produce constitutional symptoms like fever. Pyelonephritis is a potential differential diagnosis, but the examination findings are more consistent with an iliopsoas abscess. It may be helpful to rule out pyelonephritis with a urine dip and ultrasound. Although kidney stones can cause severe pain and fever if infected, the duration of the patient’s symptoms makes this possibility less likely.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand. She reports that the pain is located at the base of her left thumb and is a constant ache that worsens with movement. The patient states that the pain has been progressively worsening over the past year. She has a medical history of gout in her big toe, which is managed with allopurinol. Her mother was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis five years ago, and she is concerned that she may also have this condition. On examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the left thumb base, and unilateral squaring of the left thumb is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history and clinical examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by squaring of the thumbs. This is due to bony outgrowths at the basilar joint of the thumb. Additionally, the pain experienced is typically unilateral and worsens with movement. De Quervain’s tendinosis may cause pain at the base of the thumb but does not result in thumb squaring. Gout is unlikely to present with thumb squaring and typically affects joints in the lower limb. Psoriatic arthritis typically affects distal joints and may present with skin and nail signs. Rheumatoid arthritis, despite a positive family history and similar pain history, does not explain the squaring of the thumb.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her left hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer. During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good power throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced when forced wrist flexion is performed.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist splinting
Explanation:For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without steroid injection, should be attempted first. This woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative measures before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be appropriate for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation does not suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may eventually be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms, and conservative management is more appropriate initially. While a steroid injection may be appropriate as a first-line treatment when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, steroid treatment alone is generally not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe right lower quadrant pain and 7 episodes of diarrhoea in the last 24 hours. His observations are blood pressure 100/75 mmHg, heart rate 85 bpm, respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute, temperature 38.0ÂșC. He has a past medical history of Crohnâs disease and is allergic to aspirin. Which medication should be avoided in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine should not be administered to patients with an aspirin allergy, as they may also experience a reaction.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness in her hands that lasts for a few minutes. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past ten years. She applies diclofenac gel to her hands, which provides relief from the pain. During the examination, the doctor observes squaring of her thumbs on both sides.
What is the probable diagnosis based on the given presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is often characterized by stiffness that worsens after long periods of inactivity, such as sleep. This stiffness typically lasts only a few minutes, unlike inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, which can cause morning stiffness lasting up to an hour. One distinctive feature of hand osteoarthritis is squaring of the thumbs, specifically in the carpometacarpal joint. Pain associated with hand osteoarthritis tends to be worse with activity and relieved by rest. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and can also cause morning stiffness, but this stiffness is typically felt in the back rather than the hands. Osteoporosis itself does not cause pain or stiffness, but it can lead to bone fractures and is more commonly associated with large joint osteoarthritis than hand osteoarthritis. Reiter’s syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is characterized by conjunctivitis, urethritis, and oligoarthritis, typically affecting the knee. Squaring of the thumbs is not a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, which is instead associated with swan-neck deformity, ulnar deviation, and subluxation of the carpal bones, among other symptoms.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of left shoulder pain. The pain is confined to the shoulder and has not spread to other areas. She reports injuring her shoulder while attempting shoulder exercises at the gym recently. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal in temperature and color, without signs of swelling. Active and passive external rotation are significantly limited by pain. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are also limited by pain, but to a lesser extent. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is the correct answer as it is commonly seen in middle-aged females, diabetic patients, and following trauma. The classic impairment in adhesive capsulitis is external rotation, both on active and passive movement. On the other hand, calcific tendonosis would present with bursitis, causing pain, restriction in movement, and a hot and swollen shoulder. Cervical nerve root entrapment would cause pain in the neck and/or shoulder, with possible radiation to the arm and impaired neck range of movement. Supraspinatus tendonosis and torn rotator cuff would primarily affect abduction, not external rotation.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a 'pop' in his right foot while attempting a kick. He experienced significant pain and was unable to properly bear weight on the affected side. He is brought to the emergency department. During the examination, he is instructed to lie face down with his feet hanging off the edge of the examination bed. Upon squeezing the calf on the affected leg, there was no movement of his foot. What would be the primary imaging technique to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Ultrasound is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing a suspected Achilles tendon rupture. This is because it is a quick and easy test to carry out and can provide an accurate diagnosis in the first instance. The patient’s presentation, including an audible pop and Simmonds’ test positivity, strongly suggests an Achilles tendon rupture. While CT and MRI scans can also detect this injury, they are not the first-line choice due to their higher radiation exposure and longer testing times. Dismissing the need for imaging and assuming a simple sprain would be incorrect in this case, as the patient requires further testing to confirm or rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who was referred due to a family history of femoral fracture. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He is a former smoker, quit 10 years ago, drinks 5 units of alcohol per week and follows a vegetarian diet. His T-score is -2.5. Blood results are shown below.
Hb 140g/L 120-160g/L
WCC 7.0x109/l 4.0-11x109/l
Na+ 138 mmol/L 135-145 mmol/L
K+ 4.2mmol/L 3.5-5.0mmol/L
Ca2+ 2.3mmol/L 2.2-2.6mmol/L (adjusted)
Vitamin D 60 nmol/L >50 nmol/L
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:The recommended prescription for this patient with osteoporosis is bisphosphonate therapy, specifically alendronate or risedronate. Before starting treatment, it is important to ensure that calcium and vitamin D levels are replete, but supplementation should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate or if there is a risk of vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for older postmenopausal women with osteoporosis, as the risk vs benefit ratio is unfavourable.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated
Explanation:Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of abdominal pain, cough with purulent sputum, and shortness of breath. During abdominal palpation, splenomegaly is observed, and crackles are heard in both lung bases on auscultation. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Heart rate: 110/min
Respiratory rate: 22/min
Temperature: 38ÂșC
Blood pressure: 90/65 mmHg
Which of the following blood test results would confirm the diagnosis of Felty's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low white cell count
Explanation:Felty’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and a decreased white blood cell count. It is crucial to recognize this condition as patients may experience frequent and severe infections. The current patient is likely septic due to pneumonia.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.
It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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As an FY2 in the ED, you assess a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing right wrist pain for the past 6 weeks. The pain has been gradually increasing in intensity. She has no significant medical history, except for a previous visit to this ED 4 months ago. During that visit, she fell off her skateboard and landed awkwardly on the same wrist. However, the x-ray at the time was normal, and she was discharged home with safety netting advice and a repeat x-ray scheduled, although no image is available on the system. When asked about the follow-up, she mentions that she had no pain at the time and wanted to avoid an unnecessary trip to the hospital during the COVID-19 pandemic. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedics
Explanation:The most common cause of a scaphoid fracture is falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH), which is the mechanism of injury reported by this patient. Although the initial x-ray of the wrist was normal, it is recommended that patients with suspected scaphoid fractures undergo a repeat x-ray (with dedicated scaphoid views) after 7-10 days, as these fractures may not appear on initial imaging.
Avascular necrosis is a potential complication of scaphoid fractures, which can cause gradually worsening pain in the affected wrist over time. If this occurs, referral to an orthopaedics team for further investigation (such as an MRI) and possible surgical intervention is necessary.
In this case, referral to a hand clinic for physiotherapy is not appropriate, as the patient requires further investigation and management. However, providing safety netting advice and a leaflet before discharge from the emergency department is good practice. It is important to refer the patient to the orthopaedics team before discharge.
The FRAX score is a tool used to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture, but it is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of avascular necrosis.
While MRI is the preferred imaging modality for avascular necrosis of the scaphoid, it is not appropriate to request an outpatient MRI with GP follow-up in one week. Instead, it is best to refer the patient directly to the orthopaedics team for specialist input and timely management, including arranging and following up on any necessary imaging and deciding on the need for surgical intervention.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that has persisted for the past week. She reports feeling pain on her left temple, which intensifies when she touches her head or brushes her hair, and discomfort in her jaw when eating. She is anxious because she recently had a brief episode of vision loss, which she describes as a dark curtain descending. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Swollen pale disc with blurred margins
Explanation:The correct fundoscopy finding for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION) is a swollen pale disc with blurred margins. This occurs due to a loss of blood supply to the optic nerve, which is commonly caused by temporal arthritis. It is important to recognize this finding as urgent IV steroids are required to prevent permanent visual loss. A cherry red spot on the macula is not associated with temporal arthritis, as it is a sign of central retinal artery occlusion. Macula edema and cupping of the optic disc are also not typically associated with temporal arthritis.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A sixty-eight-year-old male arrived at the emergency department after tripping while getting out of his car and falling on his left side. He is experiencing pain in his groin and is unable to put weight on his left side. During the examination, it was observed that his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. What classification system should be utilized to categorize this patient's injury, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Garden
Explanation:The Garden classification system is utilized for the classification of neck of femur fractures. In this case, the patient has experienced a fall on her left side resulting in a painful, shortened, and externally rotated leg, which is highly suggestive of a neck of femur fracture. The Garden classification system categorizes these fractures into four types based on their severity and displacement. On the other hand, Gartland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children, Salter-Harris classification is used for fractures around the growth plate in children, and the Ottawa Rules are used to identify potential ankle fractures in patients.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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