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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with acute abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with acute abdominal pain, pain in her right shoulder, and pain during bowel movements. She reports that her last menstrual period was about 8 weeks ago. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. An urgent ultrasound scan is ordered, which confirms an ectopic pregnancy in the Fallopian tube. What is the most frequent location for implantation of an ectopic pregnancy?

      Your Answer: The ampullary region of the Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Ectopic Pregnancy: Sites and Symptoms

      Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterine cavity. The most common site for ectopic implantation is the Fallopian tube, particularly the ampullary region, accounting for 97% of cases. Symptoms include 4-8 weeks of amenorrhea, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock associated with rupture. Shoulder tip pain may also occur due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Diagnosis is made through measurement of β-human chorionic gonadotrophin and ultrasound scan of the abdomen, with laparoscopic investigation as the definitive method. Treatment involves removal of the pregnancy and often the affected tube via laparoscopy or laparotomy.

      Other sites for ectopic pregnancy include the peritoneum or abdominal cavity, which accounts for 1.4% of cases and may proceed to term. Cervical pregnancy is rare, accounting for less than 1% of cases. Ovarian pregnancy occurs in 1 in 7000 pregnancies and accounts for 0.5-3% of all ectopic pregnancies. The broad ligament is an uncommon site for ectopic pregnancies due to its poor vascularity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
      On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, iv fluids, antiemetics, US abdomen

      Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is overweight and has a history of hypertension, which is currently being treated. He does not smoke and drinks very little alcohol. His blood pressure is 129/80 mmHg and his BMI is 30 kg/m2. Upon conducting fasting blood tests, the following results were obtained: glucose 8.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), total cholesterol 6.7 mmol/L (<5.2), triglycerides 9.3 mmol/L (0.45-1.69), HDL 1.3 mmol/L (>1.55), and LDL unable to calculate due to high triglycerides. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and was referred to a dietitian and practice nurse for further management.

      Nine months later, the patient returned for a follow-up appointment. He had been taking fenofibrate 160 mg OD and metformin 1g BD for the past three months and had lost some weight, bringing his BMI down to 28 kg/m2. A repeat lipid profile was conducted and compared to the previous results. The cholesterol level had decreased from 5.4 to 3.9 (<5.2), triglycerides had decreased from 3.7 to 1.5 (0.45-1.69), HDL had decreased from 1.2 to 0.5 (1.55), and calculated LDL had increased from 2.5 to 2.72 (<3.36). The patient's low HDL level was a cause for concern.

      What is the likely cause of the patient's low HDL level?

      Your Answer: Fibrate therapy

      Explanation:

      Fibrates and Low HDL in Diabetic Patients

      This phenomenon is not commonly seen, but it is becoming more prevalent in diabetic patients who are prescribed fibrate therapy. The cause of this occurrence is not yet understood, but it typically resolves once the fibrate medication is discontinued. Low HDL levels are now considered a crucial factor in reducing cardiovascular risk. Although low HDL is a characteristic of metabolic syndrome, it is expected to be present at the time of diagnosis and to increase with weight loss. Weight loss may also lead to an increase in HDL levels. HDL is measured independently of total cholesterol, and reducing visceral adiposity may help to increase HDL levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
      The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
      How should the surgical team proceed?

      Your Answer: Begin laparotomy to explore rest of abdomen

      Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy

      Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.

      In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.

      In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter. She is brought to your clinic for evaluation. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is hyperventilating. She exhibits tenderness to light pressure on the front of her chest, but her oxygen saturation is 99% while breathing room air. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.

      Correct Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with perineal pain. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with perineal pain. He has been experiencing excruciating pain while passing stool every morning for the past two weeks. He had previously been diagnosed with an anal fissure by a surgeon, but treatment failed to relieve his symptoms. He has also noticed streaks of blood in his stool. The patient recently returned from a trip to Tokyo. He appeared very distressed and reported continuous anal discharge leading to soiling of his undergarments for the past five days.
      What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical intervention

      Correct Answer: Single dose ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Proctitis Syndrome: Single Dose Ceftriaxone

      Proctitis syndrome is a condition characterized by tenesmus, blood in stool, and anal discharge. It can be caused by infectious and non-infectious factors such as sexually transmitted diseases, Shigella, syphilis, Chlamydia, Crohn’s disease, and radiation proctitis. In this case, the patient has recently returned from a trip abroad, indicating the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection. Therefore, ceftriaxone is the appropriate treatment for gonorrhoeae, which is a common cause of proctitis.

      Probiotics are not indicated in the treatment of gonorrhoeae, and a steroid enema is only used if ulcerative colitis is suspected. Oral ciprofloxacin is not used in the treatment of gonorrhoeae but may be used for other conditions such as prostatitis or pyelonephritis. Surgical intervention is not necessary at this time but may be required later for the patient’s pre-existing anal fissure after recovery from proctitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.

      During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/μL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit...

    Incorrect

    • At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit while leaning forward on their hands, grasp a cube and transfer it from hand to hand, babble, but not yet wave goodbye or use their finger and thumb to grasp objects?

      Your Answer: 10 months

      Correct Answer: 7 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones at 7 Months

      At 7 months, babies reach several developmental milestones. They are able to sit without support, which means they can sit up straight and maintain their balance without falling over. They also start to reach for objects with a sweeping motion, using their arms to grab things that catch their attention. Additionally, they begin to imitate speech sounds, such as babbling and making noises with their mouths.

      Half of babies at this age can combine syllables into wordlike sounds, which is an important step towards language development. They may start to say simple words like mama or dada and understand the meaning behind them. Finally, many babies begin to crawl or lunge forward, which is a major milestone in their physical development. Overall, 7 months is an exciting time for babies as they continue to grow and develop new skills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her calf, near a varicose vein. An ultrasound reveals no signs of DVT, but a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis of the distal great saphenous vein is made. The patient is prescribed NSAIDs for anti-inflammatory pain relief. What other treatment should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer: Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA)

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are the recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis as they can reduce the risk of DVT and alleviate the condition. This is crucial as ongoing thrombophlebitis can significantly increase the risk of DVT. Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA), great saphenous vein biopsy, and superficial vein sclerotherapy are not appropriate treatments for thrombophlebitis as they are used for different purposes and can even be contraindicated in inflamed or thrombophlebitic veins.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the saphenofemoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
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