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  • Question 1 - You are the medical SHO in A and E. A 25-year-old female is...

    Correct

    • You are the medical SHO in A and E. A 25-year-old female is admitted in a distressed state and experiencing shortness of breath. She is finding it difficult to speak in complete sentences and is breathing rapidly. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 120 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 90%, and her peak expiratory flow rate is less than 50% of predicted. The emergency medical services have administered salbutamol 5 mg twice and provided face mask oxygen. An ABG test is pending. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg with oxygen

      Explanation:

      Management of Life-Threatening Asthma

      Patients with life-threatening asthma, characterized by saturations under 92% in air, require immediate administration of β2-agonists, preferably nebulizer with oxygen. Repeat doses should be given at 15-30 minute intervals, or continuous nebulization can be used if there is an inadequate response to bolus therapy. Nebulized ipratropium bromide should be added for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those with a poor initial response. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Steroids should be given as soon as possible, with a dose of 40-50 mg continued for five days or until recovery. Failure to respond to these treatments may warrant the use of intravenous magnesium sulfate and aminophylline, but only after discussion with senior colleagues. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is a suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or in cases of life-threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Attempting intubation prior to further therapy is not recommended, especially for those inexperienced in the technique, as there are other treatments that can be tried first before this step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old cyclist is struck by a bus traveling at 30mph. Despite not...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old cyclist is struck by a bus traveling at 30mph. Despite not wearing a helmet, he is conscious upon arrival with a GCS of 3/15 and is intubated. A CT scan reveals evidence of cerebral contusion, but there are no localizing clinical signs. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Insertion of intracranial pressure monitoring device

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure monitoring will aid in the management of this patient who is at risk of developing elevated ICP in the coming days.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A company is conducting a study on a new antibiotic called Novobact, which...

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    • A company is conducting a study on a new antibiotic called Novobact, which is administered intravenously. In a controlled experiment on a healthy participant, 500 mg of the drug is given. After a short while, the drug concentration in the plasma is measured to be 10 mg/L. If there has been no metabolism or excretion of the drug, what is the volume of distribution?

      Your Answer: 50

      Explanation:

      Body Fluid Compartments

      The human body is made up of various fluid compartments that play a crucial role in the distribution of drugs. The distribution of a drug refers to how it spreads throughout the body, and this pattern can affect its ability to interact with its target. The volume of distribution (Vd) is a concept that describes how a drug spreads across the body’s compartments. It is determined by the drug’s chemical structure, size, and ability to transport itself across membranes.

      The Vd is a theoretical concept that helps to understand what happens to a drug once it enters the body. For instance, if the Vd is 50 L, it means that the drug is distributed across the body’s compartments in that volume. On the other hand, if the Vd is 14 L, it indicates that the drug is only spread among the extracellular fluid space. However, if the Vd is greater than 42 L, it suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and can distribute beyond the body’s fluid compartments. Some drugs with very high Vds may even be preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.

      In summary, the body’s fluid compartments is crucial in determining how drugs are distributed in the body. The Vd concept helps to explain how much fluid is needed to hold a given dose of a drug to maintain the same plasma concentration. By these concepts, healthcare professionals can better predict how drugs will behave in the body and optimize their therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with worsening upper right...

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    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with worsening upper right abdominal pain after dining out with friends. She reports experiencing this pain for the past few months, but it has never been this severe. The pain tends to worsen after dinner, especially with fast food, and occasionally radiates to her right shoulder. Upon examination, you note an increase in body weight. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and bowel sounds are present. She is currently not running a fever. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment for biliary colic.

      Biliary colic is typically characterized by worsening pain after eating, but the patient is generally in good health, has no fever, and has a soft abdomen. In contrast, cholecystitis is associated with signs of infection, such as fever and tachycardia, and may involve palpable gallbladder and positive Murphy’s sign. If the patient is clinically stable and a good candidate for surgery, elective cholecystectomy is the appropriate management option. Cholecystostomy is reserved for cases of acute cholecystitis with pus accumulation, while ERCP is used to remove obstructing gallstones in patients with jaundice or risk of ascending cholangitis. MRCP is a diagnostic tool and not a treatment option.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days...

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    • A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days, the recommended first-line treatment for whooping cough is a course of oral clarithromycin or azithromycin. In this case, the correct answer is to start a course of oral clarithromycin as the patient’s history is consistent with whooping cough. Starting treatment within 21 days of onset of the cough can help to reduce the risk of spread. It is incorrect to not start any treatment as the patient has presented within the appropriate timeframe. Offering an immediate booster vaccination is also not indicated in the initial management of the index case, and starting a course of oral doxycycline is not the first-line treatment for whooping cough.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman at 12 weeks gestation experiences a miscarriage. Out of these five...

    Correct

    • A woman at 12 weeks gestation experiences a miscarriage. Out of these five factors, which one is most strongly linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Obesity is the only factor among the given options that has been linked to miscarriage. Other factors such as heavy lifting, bumping your tummy, having sex, air travel, and being stressed have not been associated with an increased risk of miscarriage. However, factors like increased maternal age, smoking in pregnancy, consuming alcohol, recreational drug use, high caffeine intake, infections and food poisoning, health conditions, and certain medicines have been linked to an increased risk of miscarriage. Additionally, an unusual shape or structure of the womb and cervical incompetence can also increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.

      Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are related to a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). She has been struggling with these symptoms for a few years, but they have worsened in recent months since she started working as a janitor. She experiences intrusive and persistent thoughts about germs, which lead her to repeatedly wash her hands, clothes, and clean her home. Her partner is worried about her, and they argue when he tries to encourage her to resist the urge to clean, as this exacerbates her anxiety symptoms. Which medication is approved for treating OCD?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Medications for OCD: A Comparison of Sertraline, Venlafaxine, Citalopram, Diazepam, and Imipramine

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends cognitive behavioral therapy with exposure response therapy and/or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for managing OCD. Sertraline is an SSRI that is licensed for treating OCD. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is not licensed for OCD treatment. Citalopram, another SSRI, is licensed for depression or panic disorder but not for OCD. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not licensed for OCD treatment due to the risk of dependence or tolerance. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also not licensed for OCD treatment. The choice of medication or therapy should be based on the severity of symptoms and patient preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports difficulty distinguishing between colors, central vision impairment, 'floaters', and tension-like headaches. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 20/50 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a red spot on the macula surrounded by a ring of retinal epithelial pigment loss resembling a 'bull's eye'. The patient has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis, and is obese. She is currently taking metformin, methotrexate, and hydroxychloroquine. What is the most probable cause of her visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which is characterized by reduced color differentiation, reduced central visual acuity, and floaters. The typical appearance of bull’s eye maculopathy on ophthalmoscopy is also associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, hydroxychloroquine is the correct answer in this case.

      Diabetic retinopathy is an unlikely diagnosis as it is usually detected early through the diabetic eye screening program. It presents with similar symptoms to drug-induced retinopathy, such as floaters and blurred vision, and can cause reduced central vision if the macula is affected. However, the bull’s eye maculopathy described in this case is not typical of diabetic maculopathy.

      Central retinal artery occlusion is caused by a disruption of retinal blood supply and typically results in sudden vision loss. On ophthalmoscopy, a cherry-red fovea with retinal whitening is usually observed. Bilateral involvement is uncommon.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with headaches, vomiting, retro-orbital pain, pulsatile tinnitus, and visual disturbance, most commonly peripheral visual fields. Papilloedema is usually observed on ophthalmoscopy, which is not described in this case.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man is referred to the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up. On...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is referred to the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up. On cardiac auscultation, an early systolic ejection click is found. A blowing diastolic murmur is also present and best heard over the third left intercostal space, close to the sternum. S1 and S2 heart sounds are normal. There are no S3 or S4 sounds. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness or episodes of fainting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between cardiac conditions based on murmurs and clicks

      Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification is a common congenital heart malformation in adults. It is characterized by an early systolic ejection click and can also present with aortic regurgitation and/or stenosis, resulting in a blowing early diastolic murmur and/or systolic ejection murmur. However, if there is no systolic ejection murmur, it can be assumed that there is no valvular stenosis or calcification. Bicuspid aortic valves are not essentially associated with stenosis and only become symptomatic later in life when significant calcification is present.

      On the other hand, a bicuspid aortic valve with significant calcification will result in aortic stenosis and an audible systolic ejection murmur. This can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, or syncope. The absence of a systolic murmur in this case excludes aortic stenosis.

      Mixed aortic stenosis and regurgitation can also be ruled out if there is no systolic ejection murmur. An early systolic ejection click without an ejection murmur or with a short ejection murmur is suggestive of a bicuspid aortic valve.

      Aortic regurgitation alone will not cause an early systolic ejection click. This is often associated with aortic or pulmonary stenosis or a bicuspid aortic valve.

      Lastly, aortic stenosis causes a systolic ejection murmur, while flow murmurs are always systolic in nature and not diastolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing for prolonged periods and struggles to rise from a seated position. Upon examination, her hands appear excessively dry and cracked, with rough erythematous papules and plaques present on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Additionally, there is reduced power in her hips and shoulders. The patient has a history of anxiety and frequently washes her hands due to fear of spreading germs during the COVID-19 pandemic. She has also been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, consuming 40 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules primarily located over the knuckles.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      2.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed