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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department after a high-speed road...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department after a high-speed road traffic accident. Upon examination, his pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure is 100/74 mmHg, and his GCS is 15. X-rays reveal a closed but comminuted fracture of his left tibia, which is swollen and tender. As he is being transferred to the orthopaedic ward, he complains of severe, unrelenting pain in his left lower leg and numbness in his left foot. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulsations are palpable, but the pain in his foot worsens with passive dorsiflexion of the ankle. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is a condition where interstitial fluid pressure increases in an osteofascial compartment, leading to compromised microcirculation and necrosis of affected nerves and muscles. It can be caused by fractures, crush injuries, burns, tourniquets, snake bites, and fluid extravasation. Symptoms include unremitting pain, sensory loss, muscle weakness, and paralysis. Compartment pressures are measured using a slit catheter device, and fasciotomy is necessary if the difference between diastolic pressure and compartment pressure is less than 30 mmHg. It can also affect the upper limb, with the greatest neurologic damage to the median nerve in anterior forearm compartment syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in his left...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in his left groin. He is uncertain when it first appeared and reports no pain, abdominal discomfort, or alterations in bowel movements. During the examination, a mass is visible above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, and it vanishes when he lies down. It does not transilluminate. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is taking metformin.

      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Routine surgical referral

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refer patients with inguinal hernias for repair, even if they are not experiencing any symptoms. This is because many patients eventually become asymptomatic and require surgery anyway. Urgent surgical referral is not necessary unless there are signs of incarceration or strangulation. Watching and waiting for the hernia to resolve is not recommended as it does not spontaneously resolve. Fitting a truss is an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but in this case, routine surgical referral is the most appropriate course of action.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents due to a painful knee. The knee is swollen, red, hot, and tender. The patient experiences extreme pain when the joint is moved, and resists any attempts to flex it passively. Upon examination, you notice a cut on the affected knee, which the parents explain was caused by a fall on the playground. The patient has a mild fever but is otherwise healthy, without other areas of pain or additional joint involvement.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Knee Pain and Inflammation

      Upon examination of a patient with knee pain and inflammation, several differential diagnoses should be considered. Septic arthritis is a likely possibility, especially if the patient has a recent cut or injury that could have allowed infective organisms to enter the joint. Non-accidental injury (NAI) should also be considered, although in this case, it is unlikely given the patient’s age, single injury, and relevant history. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), Osgood–Schlatter’s disease, and patellofemoral pain syndrome are less likely possibilities, as they typically present with different symptoms than what is observed in this patient. Overall, a thorough examination and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat knee pain and inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
      What is the probable underlying diagnosis of the unborn child?

      Your Answer: Potter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Patau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings

      Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their corresponding ultrasound findings:

      1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
      Trisomy 13 has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with trisomy 13 may have brain anomalies such as holoprosencephaly, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, and microcephaly. Other possible findings include cleft lip and palate, microphthalmia, hypotelorism, and cardiac defects.

      2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
      Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is a possible ultrasound finding in fetuses with CF. This may be a normal variant, but it can also be associated with severe disease.

      3. Down Syndrome
      20% of second-trimester fetuses with Down syndrome have major structural anomalies such as polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects. Other possible markers include nuchal fold thickness, pyelectasis, and short long bones.

      4. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by two or more X chromosomes in boys, resulting in infertility and small testicles. Ultrasound findings may be subtle, and many people may not realize they are affected.

      5. Potter Syndrome
      Potter syndrome is suspected when severe oligohydramnios and intrauterine growth retardation are present. Ultrasound findings may include pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities such as club feet and contractures.

      In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can provide valuable information for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the possible ultrasound findings associated with these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a ring pessary

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer,...

    Correct

    • In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer, 100 patients with lung cancer and 100 healthy controls were recruited.

      It was reported that the odds ratio of lung cancer in people who drank coffee daily as compared to those who did not drink coffee was 1.3 (p=0.01).

      Based on these findings, what is a valid conclusion regarding the relationship between daily coffee consumption and lung cancer risk?

      Your Answer: People who drink coffee daily were at 1.3 times increased odds of being in the lung cancer group

      Explanation:

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.

      In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the neurotransmitter that opposes the effects of dopamine in the basal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the neurotransmitter that opposes the effects of dopamine in the basal ganglia?

      Your Answer: Glutamate

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The Role of Dopamine and Acetylcholine in the Extrapyramidal Motor System

      The basal ganglia is a complex structure in the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the extrapyramidal motor system. Within the basal ganglia, there are two types of neurons that work together to maintain proper motor function: dopamine-producing neurons and acetylcholine-producing neurons.

      The substantia nigra, a structure within the basal ganglia, is rich in dopamine-producing neurons. Dopamine exerts an excitatory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system, facilitating movement. On the other hand, acetylcholine exerts an inhibitory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system.

      When both sets of neurons are functioning properly, the extrapyramidal motor system operates normally. However, if either set of neurons is malfunctioning, there can be an excess of inhibition or excitation of the extrapyramidal motor system, resulting in neurological dysfunction.

      One example of this is Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. This leads to bradykinesia and rigidity in patients. the role of dopamine and acetylcholine in the extrapyramidal motor system is crucial for and treating neurological disorders that affect motor function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and right periorbital pain. He has a sizable infected lesion on his face next to his right nostril, which he admits to causing by picking at an acne spot. During the physical examination, the doctor notices swelling around his right eye. The physician suspects that he may have cavernous venous sinus thrombosis (CST).
      What is a characteristic of CST?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis

      Correct Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Disturbance in Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

      Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis (CST) is a condition that can cause visual disturbance due to the involvement of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. This can lead to ophthalmoplegia and diplopia. The most common infective organism responsible for CST is Staphylococcus aureus, although Staphylococcus epidermidis can also be a culprit.

      One of the symptoms of CST is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi on the affected side. However, it’s important to note that this muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, which is not affected by the thrombosis.

      Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis associated with CST, but sixth nerve palsy is the most common nerve palsy overall. While symptoms such as chemosis and ptosis can occur, they are not as common as ophthalmoplegia and diplopia.

      Overall, understanding the visual disturbance associated with CST can help with early diagnosis and treatment of this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.

      She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.

      During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.

      Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology

      This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.

      It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left-sided headaches that have been...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left-sided headaches that have been occurring intermittently for the past two weeks. She reports that her vision in the left eye has worsened over the last two days and appears blurrier than usual. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is well-managed with ramipril. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness in the left temporal region with reproducible pain when the patient chews. There are no abnormalities found during external eye examination. What is the underlying pathology responsible for this patient's visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The main ocular complication in temporal arthritis is anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, which is likely the cause of the patient’s vision loss given their symptoms of headache, temporal tenderness, and jaw claudication. Retinal artery occlusion, retinal detachment, and retinal vein occlusion are not the primary causes of visual impairment in temporal arthritis and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
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