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Question 1
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the Oncology Ward with vomiting three days after receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL). She is also experiencing muscle spasms in her hands and feet and has severe muscle weakness.
The patient’s blood test results are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal range
Sodium 144 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Uric acid 600 µmol/l 140–360 µmol/l
Creatinine 168 µmol/l 68–98 µmol/l
Calcium 1.60 mmol/l 2.05–2.60 mmol/l
Phosphate 2.4 mmol/l 0.8–1.50 mmol/l
Creatine kinase 65 U/l 25–200 U/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tumour-lysis syndrome (TLS)
Explanation:Understanding Tumour-Lysis Syndrome: A Serious Complication of Chemotherapy
Tumour-lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy, most commonly seen in patients with lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs when tumour cells are destroyed, releasing their contents into the bloodstream and causing severe metabolic derangement. Symptoms may include vomiting and electrolyte imbalances, such as muscle spasms due to hypocalcaemia. TLS can lead to acute renal failure, seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and even death.
To prevent TLS, patients are assessed for their risk before chemotherapy and may be given prophylaxis with medications such as allopurinol or rasburicase. Laboratory TLS in adults are defined by specific criteria for uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium levels.
Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, chemotherapy-induced vomiting, rhabdomyolysis, and sepsis, were ruled out as they did not explain the marked electrolyte imbalances seen in TLS. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize and manage TLS promptly to prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are summoned to assess a febrile 28-year-old female patient in the postoperative recovery area following her appendectomy. The patient denies experiencing any symptoms other than feeling unwell due to the fever. The nurse reports that her temperature is 39.1ºC and verifies that she had a urinary catheter inserted during the surgery. According to the operation notes, the appendectomy was carried out 20 hours ago.
What is the probable reason for the patient's fever?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Physiological systemic inflammatory reaction
Explanation:An isolated fever in a patient without any other symptoms within the first 24 hours following surgery is most likely a physiological response to the operation. The body produces pro-inflammatory cytokines after surgery, which can cause a systemic inflammatory immune response and result in fever. It is unlikely to be a new infectious disease if the fever occurs within 48 hours of surgery. Other potential causes such as cellulitis, post-operative pneumonia, venous thromboembolism, and urinary tract infection are less likely based on the absence of relevant symptoms.
Post-operative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and can be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, and a physiological systemic inflammatory reaction that usually occurs within a day following the operation. Pulmonary atelectasis is also often listed as an early cause, but the evidence to support this link is limited. Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak.
To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, it is helpful to use the memory aid of the 4 W’s: wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic). This means that the causes can be related to respiratory issues (wind), urinary tract or other fluid-related problems (water), wound infections or complications (wound), or something that was done during the surgery or post-operative care (iatrogenic). It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia and treat it promptly to prevent further complications. This information is based on a peer-reviewed publication available on the National Center for Biotechnology Information website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?Your Answer: Sodium
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms
Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.
Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.
Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.
Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.
Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky trail during a hike. He has scrapes on both shins and a heavily soiled deep wound on his right palm. An x-ray of his hand reveals the existence of a foreign object. The patient reports being up-to-date on his tetanus immunization (last vaccination 5 years ago). What measures should be taken in this situation?
Your Answer: An immediate dose of tetanus immunoglobulin should be given
Correct Answer: Both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately
Explanation:Treatment for Tetanus-Prone Wounds
When a patient presents with a wound that is prone to tetanus, such as one that has come into contact with soil and has a foreign body, immediate treatment is necessary. According to guidance, a fully immunised patient with a tetanus-prone wound should receive both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. This treatment should be administered as soon as possible to prevent the development of tetanus, a serious and potentially fatal condition. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
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A 58-year-old accountant undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) that lasted for 45 minutes. The ST2 notifies you that the patient is restless. His heart rate is 100 bpm, and his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg. He is experiencing fluid overload, and his blood test shows a sodium level of 122 mmol/l. What is the probable reason for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) syndrome
Explanation:TURP can lead to several complications, including Tur syndrome, urethral stricture/UTI, retrograde ejaculation, and perforation of the prostate. Tur syndrome occurs when irrigation fluid enters the bloodstream, causing dilutional hyponatremia, fluid overload, and glycine toxicity. Treatment involves managing the associated complications and restricting fluid intake.
Understanding Post-Prostatectomy Syndromes
Transurethral prostatectomy is a widely used procedure for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia. It involves the insertion of a resectoscope through the urethra to remove strips of prostatic tissue using diathermy. During the procedure, the bladder and prostate are irrigated with fluids, which can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Complications may arise, such as haemorrhage, urosepsis, and retrograde ejaculation.
Post-prostatectomy syndromes are a common occurrence after transurethral prostatectomy. These syndromes can cause discomfort and pain, and may include urinary incontinence, erectile dysfunction, and bladder neck contracture. Patients may also experience a decrease in semen volume and a change in the sensation of orgasm. It is important for patients to discuss any concerns or symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment. With proper care and management, post-prostatectomy syndromes can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning, which has since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal Detachment
Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be caused by various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is a time-critical condition that requires immediate medical attention.
Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent permanent vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms associated with retinal detachment to ensure prompt medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gingivostomatitis
Correct Answer: Submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Correct
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You are with the on-call anaesthetist who is asked to assist with a distressed elderly patient who has just walked into the Emergency Department. The anaesthetist is in the middle of an epidural but sends you down to see what is going on. The patient has been stung by a wasp while gardening, and her arm has become very swollen and red. She kept gardening, but within a few minutes she began feeling light-headed and experienced difficulty breathing. The nurses are getting some monitoring set up. She looks flushed and has stridor and tachypnoea. Her first blood pressure is 76/40 mmHg and she is tachycardic at 150 bpm.
What is the best initial treatment?Your Answer: 500 micrograms intramuscular (IM) 1 : 1000 adrenaline
Explanation:Understanding the Different Treatment Options for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. When faced with a patient experiencing anaphylaxis, it is important to know the different treatment options available and when to use them.
The initial management for anaphylaxis is 500 micrograms IM 1 : 1000 adrenaline. This should be administered as soon as possible, even before equipment or IV access is available. Delaying the administration of adrenaline can be fatal.
While waiting for expertise and equipment, the airway should be stabilized, high-flow oxygen should be given, and the patient should be fluid-challenged. IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine should also be given.
It is important to note that ephedrine has no role in anaphylaxis and should not be used. IV adrenaline should only be used by those experienced in its use, and there may be a delay in obtaining IV access.
Emergency intubation may be necessary, but it will take time to gain IV access, call the anaesthetist, and intubate. IM adrenaline is quick to give and can start working while you continue with the algorithm.
Nebulised adrenaline may help with airway swelling and can work as a stopgap before intubation and while systemic adrenaline starts to work. However, it will not treat the underlying immunological phenomenon.
In summary, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is crucial in the management of anaphylaxis. While waiting for expertise and equipment, other supportive measures can be taken. IV adrenaline and emergency intubation may be necessary, but IM adrenaline should be given first. Nebulised adrenaline can be used as a stopgap measure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result came back as inadequate. It was noted in her medical history that she had an inadequate smear 4 years ago but subsequent smears were fine. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months
Explanation:If a cervical smear is inadequate, it is recommended to repeat the test within 3 months. This is the correct course of action for the patient in question, as her routine smear was deemed inadequate. Referral for colposcopy is not necessary at this stage, as it is only indicated if there are two consecutive inadequate smears that are 3 months apart. Waiting for 3 years to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as this is the interval for routine recall for a patient of her age. Similarly, waiting for 6 or 12 months to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as these timeframes are only indicated for specific circumstances such as testing for cure following treatment or if the most recent smear was hrHPV positive without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
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A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried about a fishy-smelling green vaginal discharge that she has developed. The symptoms have been ongoing for two weeks and include pruritus, dysuria and frequency. Vaginal swabs were taken and revealed a motile flagellate on wet film microscopy.
What is the causative organism for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Explanation:Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by a green-yellow discharge with a foul odor. Men usually do not show symptoms, while women may experience dysuria, frequent urination, and itching. Treatment involves taking oral metronidazole for seven days. Although complications are rare, pregnant women with trichomoniasis may experience premature labor. The disease is sexually transmitted, so a thorough sexual history should be taken.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, which may be asymptomatic in women but can cause vaginal discharge and painful urination. Treatment involves a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone 500 mg.
Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that causes chlamydia, which is often asymptomatic in women but may cause cervicitis, urethritis, or salpingitis. Treatment involves a single oral dose of azithromycin 1 g.
Candida albicans causes thrush, which is characterized by white curd-like discharge, red and sore vulva, and hyphae visible on microscopy. Treatment involves using clotrimazole in pessary or topical form, with fluconazole used for resistant cases.
Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which may present as a painless ulcer in the genital area called a chancre. Treatment involves using benzathine penicillin. While secondary and further stages of syphilis are becoming rare, it is important to seek treatment promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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