-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route. Why is this the best route of administration?
Your Answer: Poor gastric absorption
Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL. Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.
Your Answer: 125 ml/minute
Explanation:Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.
Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.
It is represented mathematically as:
Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
where,
U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)Therefore, in this case:
CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism. Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?
Your Answer: Kupffer cells
Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells
Explanation:The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases
Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.
Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.
The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:
Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.
Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.
Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.
Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.
Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?
Your Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines
Explanation:The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.
In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.
A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.
A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.
The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice. Which of the following explains the hoarseness?
Your Answer: Damage to the vagus
Explanation:During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.
Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.
However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn't involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates. Which of the following term can be used to describe this?
Your Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.
Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.
When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.
The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it. Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?
Your Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation:The amount of energy required to change the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C is its specific heat capacity.
Energy required to increase the temperature of any object is given by the equation:
E = m × c × θ
Where:
E = energy required to heat an object
m = mass of object
c = specific heat capacity of the substance
θ = temperature changeThe specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C)
Therefore the energy required to raise 1kg of water by 10°C is:
1 kg × 4181 J/(kg°C) × 10°C = 41810 J
A 1 kW or 1000 W heater would be expected to supply 1000 J/s.
The approximate time it would take the 1 kW heater to raise the temperature of one Litre of water by 10°C is:
41810/1000 = 41.8 seconds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure. What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?
Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located. What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy. To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted. On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin. Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:
Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area
Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).
Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.
These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)