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Question 1
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A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months. Her thyroid function tests are as follows: TSH: 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L), T3: 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L), T4: 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L). What will explain this biochemical picture?
Your Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .
In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.
Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.
Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor β gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:
Generalised resistance (GrTH)
Pituitary resistance (PrTH)Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.
Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:
Warfarin
Rifampin
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
St John’s Wort
CarbamazepineThese drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal. Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.
Your Answer: Transversalis fascia
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.
The borders of the inguinal canal are:
Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.
Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon
Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting. In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?
Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting. The cardiotocograph shows late foetal pulse decelerations, and a pH of 7.24 was found in the recent foetal scalp blood sample. Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?
Your Answer: The patient requires a category 2 caesarean section under spinal anaesthetic
Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time
Explanation:Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the baby’s risk and the mother’s safety.
There are four types of caesarean section urgency:
Category 1: A threat to the life of the mother or the foetus. 30 minutes to make a delivery decision
Category 2 : Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening. In most cases, the decision to deliver is made within 75 minutes.
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.There may be evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (late foetal pulse decelerations and a borderline pH).
Blood samples from the foetus:
normal: 7.25 or above
borderline: 7.21 to 7.24
abnormal: 7.20 or belowWhen a foetal deceleration occurs, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and given a tocolytic if the foetal deceleration is hyper stimulating. Maintaining adequate hydration will reduce the likelihood of a caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer: Glucagon
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?
Your Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle
Explanation:Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.
Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.
Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.
Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on α1, α2, β1, and β2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of these statements regarding the basilar artery and its branches is not true?
Your Answer: The labyrinthine branch is accompanied by the facial nerve
Correct Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest branch arising from the distal portion of the vertebral artery which forms the basilar artery. It is one of the arteries responsible for providing blood supply to the brain’s cerebellum.
The labyrinthine artery (auditory artery) is a long and slender artery which arises from the basilar artery and runs alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus.
The posterior cerebellar artery is one of two cerebral arteries supplying the occipital lobe with oxygenated blood. It is usually bigger than the superior cerebellar artery. It is separated from the vessel near its origin by the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2. Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Prothrombin complex
Explanation:Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.
Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.
Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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