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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of a secondary delusion?
Your Answer: A person with depression develops the idea that they are responsible for the death of their spouse
Explanation:The delusional psychopathology is a secondary factor that can lead to delusions, while the other examples are considered primary delusions. It’s important to note that delusional mood is distinct from the mood disorder associated with depression, as it refers to a subtle sense of paranoia of unusual feeling that may precede the development of delusional beliefs.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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How can we describe the absence of a link between two successive ideas?
Your Answer: Asyndesis
Explanation:Echolalia refers to the act of repeating someone else’s spoken words without any meaningful connection of context. This behavior is often observed in individuals with certain neurological of developmental disorders.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions is most accurately categorized as a primary delusion?
Your Answer: A patient reports hearing a television program broadcasting secrets about her with subliminal messages. She records and rewatches the program several times, trying to pinpoint when her secrets are being revealed.
Correct Answer: A patient reports that suddenly the world has changed, that people are looking at them oddly, and that something must have happened although they do not know what
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a delusional atmosphere and mood, which is a primary delusion. This means that they are in an emotional state where they are making connections and attributing significance to things that have no relevance to a healthy person. The patient’s belief that the world has changed and people are looking at them is an example of this. The other options, such as grandiose mood of auditory hallucinations, are secondary delusions that result from another underlying psychopathology.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the purpose of the Stroop test?
Your Answer: Response inhibition
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Correct
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How can we measure the discontinuation symptoms that occur when someone stops taking antidepressants?
Your Answer: DESS
Explanation:The DESS scale is utilized to measure the symptoms that arise when antidepressants are discontinued.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the BMI of a girl who visited the clinic due to concerns from her GP about her lack of eating, and has a weight of 50 kg and a height of 165cm?
Your Answer: 18 of above
Explanation:Assessment and Management of Obesity
Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.
Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.
Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is one of the components that is evaluated directly in the SF-36?
Your Answer: Financial burden
Correct Answer: Bodily pain
Explanation:SF-36: A Patient-Reported Survey for Measuring Functioning and Well-Being
The SF-36, also known as the Short-form 36, is a survey consisting of 36 items that patients can complete to rate their functioning and well-being. The survey is designed to measure eight different scales, with four pertaining to physical health and four to mental health. The physical health scales include physical functioning, role limitations due to physical health problems, bodily pain, and general health. The mental health scales include vitality (energy/fatigue), social functioning, role limitations due to emotional problems, and mental health (psychological distress and psychological well-being). Patients can complete the survey on their own, and it typically takes around eight minutes to finish.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging parents and the limitations that they place on his personal time goes out each weekend and buys them extravagant gifts and hires expensive caretakers. Assuming the two are connected, which defense mechanism is likely to be underlying this behavior?
Your Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'?
Your Answer: A less severe form of flight of ideas
Explanation:Prolixity is a minor form of flight of ideas that can occur during hypomania. It is characterized by a decrease in clang and verbal associations, and a more focused direction of thought. The speed of thought is also not as rapid as in other forms of flight of ideas.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Incorrect
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At what time was the ICD-11 released?
Your Answer: 1998
Correct Answer: 1992
Explanation:The initial version of ICD-10 was released in 1992, while the first edition of ICD was published in 1855 to standardize the classification of causes of death. In 1948, ICD underwent a major revision and expanded from solely recording causes of death to encompass the International Lists of Diseases and Causes of Death, which was the 6th edition. DSM 4 was published in 1994, and there were no noteworthy alterations to the ICD/ DSM classifications in 1998.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Correct
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An elderly man complains that his urine appears milky white, on further questioning you ascertain that he believes he is passing semen in his urine. Which condition is he most likely to be suffering with?
Your Answer: Dhat
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to evaluate?
Your Answer: Intelligence
Correct Answer: Attitude
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the options below indicates a strong fixation of preoccupation with something?
Your Answer: Repetitive and silent counting to counter anxiety caused by urges to throw hot drinks at people
Correct Answer: Experiencing repetitive and unpleasant urges to stab animals
Explanation:The question asks for the most suggestive option, and it should be noted that for something to be considered an obsession according to DSM-5 criteria, it must be time-consuming of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Obsessions can manifest as intrusive and unpleasant urges, thoughts, of images.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the experience of a male patient withdrawing from alcohol who sees small people walking on top of his bed sheets?
Your Answer: Lilliputian hallucinations
Explanation:Lilliputian hallucinations are commonly observed in conditions caused by organic factors, such as withdrawal and intoxication.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the standard test used to measure digit span?
Your Answer: Short-term memory
Explanation:The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Correct
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What was specifically designed to detect the effects of antidepressants on the body?
Your Answer: MADRS
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the least dependable indicator of long-term alcohol misuse?
Your Answer: Caput medusa
Correct Answer: Abdominal striae
Explanation:Hepatomegaly
Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the alternative name for Briquet's syndrome in the field of psychiatry?
Your Answer: Hypochondriasis
Correct Answer: Bodily distress disorder
Explanation:In 1859, Pierre Briquet, a French physician and psychologist, released his Treatise on Hysteria, which established the foundation for the contemporary diagnosis of somatization disorder (also known as Briquet syndrome). The ICD-11 now refers to this as bodily distress disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Correct
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A teenage patient with long standing alcohol difficulties begins telling their therapist about their struggles with school. They are finding it hard to keep up with their coursework and so stop. The therapist acknowledges that it must be tough and commends the patient on their efforts so far.
Which of the following techniques is the psychiatrist using?Your Answer: Reinforcement
Explanation:The psychiatrist aims to encourage the patient to persist in their work by providing positive feedback.
Interview Techniques: Reinforcement
The term ‘reinforcement’ may seem vague, but it is a topic that can be tested in exams. It pertains to interview techniques that seem to enhance a particular behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Correct
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What is a true statement about the PANSS?
Your Answer: Each item is scored out of 7
Explanation:The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Correct
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Which statement about Wilson's disease is incorrect?
Your Answer: In Wilson disease the plasma level of ceruloplasmin is usually high
Explanation:Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.
The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.
The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.
In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Correct
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What is a true statement about primary polydipsia?
Your Answer: Polyuria throughout the night is uncommonly reported by patients with primary polydipsia
Explanation:Patients with polydipsia tend to have a slower onset of symptoms and are less likely to report waking up at night to drink of urinate, in comparison to patients with conditions like diabetes insipidus (Fenske, 2012). Fenske’s (2012) clinical review discusses the current and future approaches to diagnosing diabetes insipidus.
Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a patient who remains in the same position for several minutes after a doctor places their hands on their head during an examination?
Your Answer: Mitgehen
Correct Answer: Cerea flexibilitas
Explanation:Unlike forms of automatic obedience like mitmachen and mitgehen, where the limb will move even after the force is removed, cerea flexibilitas results in the limb staying in place once the force is no longer applied.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Correct
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What does the Flynn Effect refer to in terms of changes observed in successive generations?
Your Answer: Intelligence
Explanation:The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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What sign of symptom is most indicative of a long-term issue with alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Multiple spider naevi
Explanation:Spider Nevus: Causes and Symptoms
A spider nevus is a common type of angioma that appears on the skin’s surface. It is usually considered a normal finding when one of two are present. However, if there is a rapid development of numerous prominent spider nevi, it may indicate an underlying liver problem. The most common cause of this condition is alcohol consumption. Pregnant women and those who use oral contraceptives are also prone to developing spider nevi due to the dilation of existing vessels on the skin surface. If you notice any unusual changes in the appearance of spider nevi, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the big five personality traits is synonymous with the term Surgency?
Your Answer: Agreeableness
Correct Answer: Extraversion
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be controlled or stopped?
Your Answer: Myoclonus
Explanation:It is important to note that myoclonus is a common occurrence when individuals are falling asleep and is not considered abnormal in this context. Tics share similarities with myoclonus, but one key difference is that tics can be partially suppressed.
Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the most probable reason for the mixed martial artist's motivation to become a champion despite experiencing humiliation from his father as a child?
Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:The man’s mother’s stance against violence prevented him from acting aggressively towards his father. Instead, he found an outlet for his aggression through martial arts, which was deemed socially acceptable. His success as a champion suggests that he sublimated his aggression into a positive pursuit, rather than displacing it onto others, which is a less mature defense mechanism. There is no indication that he repressed his feelings towards his father, as he was able to channel his aggression in a constructive manner.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Correct
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Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?
Your Answer: WBC
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile
Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.
It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the likely cause of absent light reflex but normal accommodation in a patient with dementia during an eye examination?
Your Answer: Adie's tonic pupil
Correct Answer: Argyll Robertson pupils
Explanation:Based on the patient’s dementia history, the diagnosis is supported.
Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained
The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 31
Correct
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What is a true statement about epilepsy?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine is considered a first-line option for the treatment of focal epilepsy
Explanation:Epilepsy: An Overview
Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.
In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 32
Correct
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What type of tremor is commonly observed as a result of extended lithium usage?
Your Answer: Physiologic tremor
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between the types of tremors seen in lithium toxicity and long-term lithium use. Coarse, intention tremor is associated with lithium toxicity, while fine, physiological tremor is seen in long-term lithium use. Remembering this distinction can help avoid confusion when assessing patients on lithium therapy.
Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?
Your Answer: Visual-spatial capacity
Correct Answer: Sentence completion
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 34
Correct
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How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately described?
Your Answer: People from Black minorities have the highest rate of mental illness in UK
Explanation:Institutional Racism in Psychiatry
There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.
While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.
It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the condition commonly observed in Cambodian communities that is marked by panic symptoms and a belief that a wind-like substance can cause severe consequences by rising in the body?
Your Answer: Khyâl cap
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 36
Correct
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Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the situation where diagnostic categories align with clinical experience?
Your Answer: Content validity
Correct Answer: Face validity
Explanation:For diagnostic categories to be useful, they must be related to the disorders encountered in practice. Face validity refers to the degree to which diagnostic categories align with clinical experience. Validity is distinct from diagnosis reliability. Concurrent validity measures how well a test corresponds with other measures of the same thing. Construct validity involves diagnostic categories indicating connections between disorders and independent variables, such as biochemical measures. Content validity involves test items representing the full range of possible items the test could cover. Predictive validity involves diagnostic categories being able to anticipate the outcome of disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A junior colleague calls you about a patient on one of the pediatric wards. They have fallen over and sustained a head injury. They tell you that the patient is orientated in time, place, and person, is opening their eyes when spoken to, and obeys commands such as put you finger to your nose. What is the patients Glasgow Coma Scale score?
Your Answer: 12
Correct Answer: 14
Explanation:The total score of E3 V5 M6 is 14.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 39
Correct
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A woman who experiences frequent headaches tells her doctor that whenever she has a migraine, when her husband speaks to her it feels like he is yelling directly into her ear. What symptom is she displaying?
Your Answer: Hyperacusis
Explanation:Gedankenlautwerden pertains to thoughts that can be heard.
Sensory Distortions of Sound
Hyperacusis is a condition where an individual experiences an increased sensitivity to noise. This condition is commonly observed in people with anxiety and depressive disorders, as well as during a hangover of migraine. On the other hand, hypoacusis is a condition where an individual experiences a reduced sensitivity to sound. This condition is commonly observed in people with delirium and depression, where it is often accompanied by hyperacusis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is an example of a mixed state according to Kraepelin?
Your Answer: Excited mania
Correct Answer: Manic stupor
Explanation:Kraepelin’s Mixed States: A Historical Overview
Kraepelin’s six types of mixed states were based on various combinations of mood, will, and thought processes. These mixed states are less common than pure mania of pure depression. Dysphoric mania and depressive mixed state are the two types of mixed states that have been reduced over the years. Other terms used to describe mixed states include agitated depression, anxious depression, irritable depression, and mixed hypomania. Despite the reduction in the number of mixed states, they remain a relevant psychopathological syndrome in modern times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 41
Correct
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What is the most probable reason for a patient with delirium to seem unresponsive to attempts at communication?
Your Answer: Hypoacusis
Explanation:Sensory Distortions of Sound
Hyperacusis is a condition where an individual experiences an increased sensitivity to noise. This condition is commonly observed in people with anxiety and depressive disorders, as well as during a hangover of migraine. On the other hand, hypoacusis is a condition where an individual experiences a reduced sensitivity to sound. This condition is commonly observed in people with delirium and depression, where it is often accompanied by hyperacusis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 42
Correct
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What individual proposed a differentiation between fundamental and supplementary symptoms in schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Bleuler
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 43
Correct
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What is the scale used to determine the presence of psychiatric disorders in a population?
Your Answer: GHQ
Explanation:The college is evaluating your comprehension of the term ‘caseness’ through this question. The GHQ is an established instrument used to detect individuals who meet the criteria for ‘caseness’.
Defining ‘Caseness’ in Psychological Rating Scales
When utilizing a psychological rating scale for screening purposes, it is crucial to establish a clear definition of ‘caseness.’ This refers to the threshold at which a respondent of participant is identified as a case, typically represented by a numerical cutoff value. Without a defined caseness, the results of the screening may be ambiguous of inconsistent. Therefore, it is essential to establish a clear operational definition of caseness to ensure accurate and reliable screening outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 44
Correct
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Which medical condition is commonly linked to Argyll Robertson pupils?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained
The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 45
Correct
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For male patients with learning disabilities who have newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, NICE recommends which of the following as the first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:If the question had been about a female patient with learning difficulties, the pharmacological management of epilepsy may need to be adjusted based on factors such as hormonal changes and potential interactions with birth control medication.
Epilepsy: An Overview
Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.
In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 46
Correct
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The child followed every instruction without considering the outcome. The doctor requested the child to stick out their tongue and proceeded to prick it with a pin. Despite the pain, the child complied each time the doctor asked and allowed their tongue to be pricked. What symptom is the child displaying?
Your Answer: Automatic obedience
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 47
Correct
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Which of the options below is not an accepted method for screening alcohol-related issues?
Your Answer: PACE
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Out of the options provided, which symptom is not classified as a first rank symptom of schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Thought broadcasting
Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 49
Incorrect
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How can the alcohol screening tool that only contains one question be described?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Correct Answer: SASQ
Explanation:The SASQ is a screening questionnaire that consists of a single question asking about the last time an individual had more than a certain number of alcoholic drinks in one day (8 for men and 6 for women). If the response indicates that this occurred within the past 3 months, it suggests that the individual may be engaging in harmful of hazardous drinking.
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A teenager from West Africa is showing signs of anxiety, including vague physical symptoms, as they prepare for their exams. What would be the most suitable diagnosis for this individual?
Your Answer: Amok
Correct Answer: Brain fag
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which symptom is not considered one of Bleuler's primary symptoms?
Your Answer: Autism
Correct Answer: Anhedonia
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 52
Incorrect
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An artificially high calcium level can result from abnormalities in which of the following?
Your Answer: Phosphate
Correct Answer: Albumin
Explanation:Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes
Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.
It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Which frontal lobe function is evaluated by the Luria test?
Your Answer: Decision making
Correct Answer: Set shifting
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the symptoms of the woman who visited A&E claiming that she had a chip implanted in her head by CIA and could hear voices reporting her every move back to headquarters?
Your Answer: Thought withdrawal
Correct Answer: Running commentary
Explanation:The women’s movements are being narrated in real-time by the voices, which is known as ‘running commentary’. It does not appear that the voices are affecting her thoughts in any way.
First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 55
Incorrect
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What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria?
Your Answer: Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 56
Incorrect
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What tool was created by the World Health Organization to aid in identifying alcohol dependence in primary healthcare settings?
Your Answer: PAT
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about movement disorders?
Your Answer: Myoclonus can usually be suppressed
Correct Answer: Dystonia is not typically observed during sleep
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 58
Incorrect
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What is the most reliable way to determine someone's current level of intelligence?
Your Answer: NART
Correct Answer: WAIS
Explanation:The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which personality disorder does not belong to the cluster B category?
Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements?
Your Answer: Chorea
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the defense mechanism that involves forgetting certain memories due to motivation?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Repression
Explanation:Motivated forgetting refers to the intentional or unintentional act of suppressing or repressing distressing memories. Suppression is a conscious form of motivated forgetting, while repression is a subconscious form.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which assessment tools can individuals rate themselves?
Your Answer: HAMD (Hamilton depression rating scale)
Correct Answer: EPDS (Edinburgh postnatal major depression scale)
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia?
Your Answer: Bernstein test
Correct Answer: Romberg's test
Explanation:A positive Romberg test suggests the presence of sensory ataxia.
Romberg’s Test for Investigating Ataxia
Romberg’s test is a diagnostic tool used to determine the cause of ataxia. A positive result indicates that the cause is sensory in nature. The test involves asking the patient to stand upright with their feet together and eyes closed. If the patient begins to sway of fall over, the test is considered positive. In cases where there is a cerebellar problem, the patient will exhibit ataxia even when their eyes are open. Romberg’s test is an important tool in diagnosing ataxia and determining the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the AUDIT questionnaire?
Your Answer: It was developed by the Royal College of Psychiatrists
Correct Answer: It includes a total of 10 questions
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 65
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about depersonalization?
Your Answer: It is generally a pleasant experience
Correct Answer: It is associated with emotional numbness
Explanation:Ego (Boundary) Disturbances
Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.
Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.
Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.
Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.
Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect?
Your Answer: Placebo responders have a characteristic personality type
Correct Answer: Placebo response tends to be greater in milder forms of illness
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class is too scared to ask him to hang out. Instead, she makes fun of him. What defense mechanism could be at play?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 68
Correct
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Which BMI classification is accurate?
Your Answer: BMI 32 = obesity class I
Explanation:Assessment and Management of Obesity
Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.
Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.
Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend more time alone. They also start engaging in increased substance use. The school counselor notes that this occurs at a time when the academic work has become very challenging.
Which of the following defense mechanisms is suggested?Your Answer: Projective identification
Correct Answer: Acting out
Explanation:Common examples of acting out include avoiding therapy sessions and using alcohol as a means of avoiding the challenging work of therapy.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 70
Incorrect
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An adult patient while receiving treatment in a hospital ward thinks that they are in their own house that has magically turned into the hospital. What type of condition does this scenario illustrate?
Your Answer: Othello syndrome
Correct Answer: Reduplicative paramnesia
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Which condition related to catatonia involves the patient being placed in uncomfortable positions that are sustained for a significant amount of time?
Your Answer: Stereotypy
Correct Answer: Waxy flexibility
Explanation:Waxy flexibility involves the examiner imposing postures on the patient, while posturing involves spontaneous postures. On the other hand, mitgehen is a type of automatic obedience where the examiner can easily move the patient’s body with a gentle touch, but unlike waxy flexibility, the body part quickly returns to its original position.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Which manual for diagnosing mental disorders popularized the use of operational criteria in psychiatric diagnosis?
Your Answer: ICD-8
Correct Answer: DSM III
Explanation:The implementation of operational criteria in diagnosis was a significant feature of DSM III, which was a response to the criticism of the previous versions of the DSM that relied heavily on psychodynamic concepts. This shift in approach is often praised for revitalizing the field of psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A teenager reports that last week it became clear to them that they were the true son of Princess Diana and that the royal family were in fact lizards connected to organised crime. They deny abnormal perceptual phenomena. They deny that life has felt odd of strange over the past few months. They state their intent to dethrone the queen by any means necessary. They do not appear agitated whilst describing this.
Which of the following is illustrated?Your Answer: Delusional memory
Correct Answer: Sudden delusional ideas
Explanation:Sudden delusional ideas are distinct from delusional perceptions as they do not arise from abnormal sensory experiences. There is no evidence of a paranoid environment. These delusions do not involve feeling persecuted. In persecutory delusions, the individual believes they are the object of aggression of surveillance. They may have delusions that they are in danger, insulted, ridiculed, monitored, of robbed by others who seek to harm their health, possessions, of life.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 74
Incorrect
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What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A?
Your Answer: Antisocial
Correct Answer: Paranoid
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 75
Incorrect
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What is the meaning of 'placebo sag'?
Your Answer: The study observation that the placebo effect weakens as a participants age increases
Correct Answer: Where a patient's response to the placebo effect is diminished as an increasing number of treatments fail
Explanation:The phenomenon known as placebo sag occurs when individuals who have undergone multiple treatment failures experience a decrease in the placebo effect. This is particularly common in chronically ill patients who may feel hopeless and discouraged. However, it is important to note that the extent to which the placebo effect diminishes over time varies depending on the individual’s experiences.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?
Your Answer: A hallucination
Correct Answer: An illusion
Explanation:An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 77
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the process of replacing gaps in memory with inaccurate details?
Your Answer: Jamais vu
Correct Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Which of the following best represents a strong indication of being dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer: Low GGT
Correct Answer: Raised MCV
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile
Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.
It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 79
Incorrect
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What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome commonly observed in Latinos that is marked by aggressive behavior, crying, and shouting?
Your Answer: Latah
Correct Answer: Ataque de nervios
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 80
Incorrect
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What did Bleuler identify as a core symptom of schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Correct Answer: Loosening of associations
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 81
Incorrect
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What defense mechanism is being demonstrated by a woman who is usually introverted and avoids social situations, but now insists on going out with friends every weekend, drinking excessively, and participating in karaoke?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:In this situation, it is more appropriate to use the defense mechanism of reaction formation instead of sublimation. Sublimation involves redirecting an impulse into a positive outlet, but since the individual in question has a negative behavior of heavy drinking, it would not be effective. On the other hand, reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of the true impulse, which would be more suitable. It is important to note that sublimation and reaction formation do have some similarities, with sublimation being a more advanced version of reaction formation.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A score of 9-12 on the Glasgow Coma Scale signifies what?
Your Answer: Severely impaired consciousness
Correct Answer: Moderately impaired consciousness
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which diagnosis is consistent with a Malaysian man exhibiting sudden aggression and violence, followed by a deep stupor and subsequent inability to recall the events?
Your Answer: Taijin kyofusho
Correct Answer: Amok
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 84
Incorrect
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An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract 3 again from the product of that calculation. What is being assessed?
Your Answer: Visual construction
Correct Answer: Concentration
Explanation:The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer: Menstrual abnormalities
Correct Answer: Brisk reflexes
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is typically associated with brisk reflexes, while hypothyroidism is associated with reduced reflexes. However, the other symptoms and signs can be present in both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.
Thyroid Examination Findings
Hypothyroidism:
– Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
– Intolerance to cold
– Lethargy
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances
– Decreased perspirationExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Bradycardia
– Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Myxoedema
– HyporeflexiaHyperthyroidism:
– Weight loss (with increased appetite)
– Intolerance to heat
– Palpitations
– Menstrual disturbancesExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Tachycardia
– Warm, moist, and smooth skin
– Tremor
– Brisk reflexes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 86
Correct
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Which option is not included in Vaillant's categories of defence mechanisms?
Your Answer: Depressive
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about migraines?
Your Answer: They affect approximately 1% of the population
Correct Answer: They can be precipitated by stress
Explanation:Migraine
Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.
The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.
In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.
Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.
Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of a closed question?
Your Answer: What do you think could be done to improve psychiatric training?
Correct Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Which of the following examination findings is not consistent with chronic alcohol abuse?
Your Answer: Caput medusa
Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Thyroid disease is typically linked with pretibial myxoedema.
Hepatomegaly
Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression?
Your Answer: Early morning awakenings
Correct Answer: Increased total sleep time
Explanation:Depression and Sleep Architecture
Major depression has been extensively studied using polysomnography, a technique that records brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity during sleep. The results of these studies have consistently shown that individuals with depression experience significant disruptions in their sleep architecture.
Specifically, depression is associated with decreased sleep continuity, meaning that individuals may wake up frequently throughout the night. Additionally, depression is characterized by prolonged sleep onset latency, of the amount of time it takes to fall asleep, as well as increased wake time after sleep onset, which refers to the amount of time spent awake during the night.
Other sleep disturbances commonly observed in individuals with depression include decreased sleep efficiency, of the amount of time spent asleep relative to the amount of time spent in bed, and decreased total sleep time. Early morning awakenings are also common in depression, as are reductions in slow wave sleep, which is the deepest stage of sleep.
Interestingly, depression is also associated with changes in REM sleep, the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs. Specifically, individuals with depression tend to have reduced REM sleep onset latency, meaning they enter REM sleep more quickly, as well as increased REM density, of the amount of eye movements during REM sleep. Additionally, individuals with depression may spend a prolonged amount of time in the first REM sleep period.
Overall, the disruptions in sleep architecture observed in depression may contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms. Understanding these sleep disturbances may therefore be an important target for the treatment of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 91
Incorrect
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What characteristic is commonly observed in individuals originating from West Africa?
Your Answer: Khyâl cap
Correct Answer: Brain fag
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 92
Correct
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Which of the options below is inconsistent with a diagnosis of delusional disorder?
Your Answer: Delusions of control
Explanation:Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)
The Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR) is a well-known actuarial tool that is used to predict the likelihood of sex offence recidivism. It comprises of four items that have been proven to have predictive accuracy for sex offence recidivism. These items include the number of past sex offence convictions of charges, the age of the offender being less than 25, the offender being unrelated to the victim, and the gender of the victim.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A client with schizophrenia tells you that a neuropsychologist informed him he was deficient on the Hayling Test. He inquires about the meaning of this. What cognitive function would you propose is affected?
Your Answer: Verbal fluency
Correct Answer: Response inhibition
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 94
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a category tested using the MMSE?
Your Answer: Recall
Correct Answer: Verbal fluency
Explanation:The MMSE does not evaluate verbal fluency as it is a measure of the frontal lobe function, which is assessed through the ACE-R.
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Out of the options provided, which term is not classified as a personality disorder according to the DSM-5?
Your Answer: Avoidant
Correct Answer: Passive-aggressive
Explanation:The DSM-III previously utilized the term passive-aggressive personality disorder.
Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase V
Correct Answer: Phase IV
Explanation:Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives
Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 97
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently observed endocrine abnormality in sick euthyroid syndrome?
Your Answer: Low T4
Correct Answer: Low T3
Explanation:Sick Euthyroid Syndrome: Abnormal Thyroid Function in Non-Thyroidal Illness
Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as low T3 syndrome, is a condition where thyroid function tests show abnormal results, typically low T3 levels, while T4 and TSH levels remain normal. This condition is commonly observed in patients with non-thyroidal illness. For instance, individuals with anorexia who have undergone prolonged starvation may develop this syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 98
Correct
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What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct mixed affective conditions?
Your Answer: Kraepelin
Explanation:Inhibited Mania
Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.
Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.
Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 99
Incorrect
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How can secondary delusion be best described?
Your Answer: A man suddenly believes he is Jesus
Correct Answer: An elderly woman believes her neighbours are spying on her. She believes this because the TV told her so
Explanation:The belief that her neighbors are spying on her, which was triggered by the TV, is likely a secondary delusion stemming from a pathological encounter such as a hallucination of a referential experience.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 100
Incorrect
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What scale necessitates the clinician to possess prior familiarity with the patient's ailment?
Your Answer: Edinburgh postnatal major depression scale
Correct Answer: Clinical global impression
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 101
Incorrect
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What is a personality disorder that falls under the cluster C category?
Your Answer: Histrionic
Correct Answer: Dependent
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A senior citizen is sharing a thorough recollection of their military experience with their therapist. The therapist wishes to shift the discussion and suggests, I believe you've provided me with ample information on that topic. Shall we discuss your medication now?
Your Answer: Summarising
Correct Answer: Transition
Explanation:Interview Techniques: The Importance of Transition
Effective communication is crucial in any healthcare setting, particularly in psychiatry where patients may be hesitant to share personal information. One technique that can aid in the interview process is transition. Transition involves signaling to the patient that the interviewer has gathered enough information on a particular topic and is ready to move on to another subject.
Transition can be especially helpful when discussing sensitive of uncomfortable topics, as it allows the patient to feel heard and validated while also providing a sense of structure to the interview. Additionally, it can prevent the interview from becoming too focused on one topic, which may not be the most pressing concern for the patient.
It is important to use clear and concise language when transitioning to a new topic, and to ensure that the patient is comfortable with the change in direction. This can be achieved by asking if there is anything else they would like to add of if they have any questions before moving on.
Overall, incorporating transition into the interview process can improve communication and help patients feel more comfortable sharing their experiences and concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 103
Correct
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A teenage girl from a family with strong religious beliefs is unable to express her homosexual feelings. She starts writing poetry which indirectly portrays same-sex love. She finds solace in her writing and gains recognition for her talent.
What defense mechanism is likely at play in the girl's connection with her poetry?Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 104
Correct
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What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after experiencing a stroke, displays signs of confusion, responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movement, and is able to engage in a basic conversation but still appears disoriented?
Your Answer: 11
Explanation:The score is 11, with E2, V4, and M5 contributing to it.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 105
Incorrect
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An evaluator asks a child to list all the fruits they know that start with the letter A. What particular aspect of cognitive function is being evaluated?
Your Answer: Concentration
Correct Answer: Executive function
Explanation:Verbal fluency can be demonstrated by listing as many animals as possible within a minute using a specific letter.
The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Who is credited with creating the term schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Schneider
Correct Answer: Bleuler
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 107
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Capgras syndrome
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 108
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a medication that has its own distinct effects but does not provide any benefits for the intended condition?
Your Answer: A restricted placebo
Correct Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 109
Incorrect
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What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?
Your Answer: PDQ-R
Correct Answer: BPRS
Explanation:The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 110
Correct
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Which of the following is not a known trigger for migraines?
Your Answer: Spicy foods
Explanation:Migraine
Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.
The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.
In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.
Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.
Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 111
Incorrect
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What components are included in the frontal assessment battery evaluation?
Your Answer: Personality
Correct Answer: Abstract reasoning
Explanation:The frontal assessment battery does not include personality and calculation (attention) despite them being functions of the frontal lobe.
The Frontal Assessment Battery (FAB) is a quick and easy bedside test used to detect the dysexecutive syndrome. It consists of six subsets, including conceptualization, mental flexibility, motor programming, conflicting instructions, go-no go (inhibitory control), and prehension behavior. The test assesses a patient’s ability to perform tasks such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and motor skills. The FAB can be completed in just a few minutes and is a useful tool for clinicians in evaluating patients with suspected executive dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 112
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?
Your Answer: It is divided into 10 domains
Correct Answer: It is a useful tool for detecting dementia
Explanation:The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia
The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.
The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 113
Incorrect
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What is the likely diagnosis when a patient exhibits a normal accommodation reflex but an absent light reflex during a pupil examination?
Your Answer: Marcus Gunn pupil
Correct Answer: Argyll Robertson pupil
Explanation:Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained
The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A child complains that people's heads seem to appear larger than they should in relation to their bodies.
Which of the following best describes their experience?Your Answer: Paridolia
Correct Answer: Dysmegalopsia
Explanation:Dysmegalopsia: Difficulty in Perceiving Object Size
Dysmegalopsia is a condition characterized by a reduced ability to accurately perceive the size of objects. This can manifest as either micropsia, where objects appear smaller than they actually are, of macropsia, where objects appear larger than they actually are. Dysmegalopsia can occur as a standalone symptom of as part of a group of symptoms known as the Alice in Wonderland Syndrome. In this syndrome, individuals may experience distortions in their perception of size, shape, and distance, as well as other sensory disturbances. Dysmegalopsia can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, migraines, and the use of certain medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 70 year old woman with post-stroke cognitive deficits is referred for an assessment of intelligence. Which test would give the best indication of her intelligence as it was before she had a stroke?
Your Answer: Mini Mental State Examination
Correct Answer: The National Adult Reading Test
Explanation:The National Adult Reading Test as a Valid Measure of Premorbid Intelligence
The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is a reliable and valid assessment tool for measuring premorbid intelligence. It comprises 50 words with irregular spellings, and the test-taker must correctly pronounce each word to receive a point. The NART is a useful tool for assessing cognitive function in individuals with neurological disorders of brain injuries, as it provides a baseline measure of their intellectual abilities before the onset of their condition. The NART is a widely used and respected measure of premorbid intelligence, and its results can inform clinical decision-making and treatment planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A doctor wants to collect evidence of her patients' satisfaction with their medical treatment. She gives each patient a form after their appointment and asks them to complete it. The form consists of just one statement which reads 'the medical treatment I received today was very effective'. Underneath the statement is a list of options to select from which reads 'strongly agree' agree' 'neutral', 'disagree', 'strongly disagree'.
What type of scale has the doctor used?Your Answer: Guttman Scales
Correct Answer: Likert Scale
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A child undergoes a lower limb amputation. She comes to clinic, talks about her favorite toys and resists your attempts to discuss her operation. When you ask her how her leg is feeling, she replies by saying that she has no pain and that there is nothing wrong with her leg. She says that she used a wheelchair to get to clinic as she wanted to try it out.
Which defense mechanism is being used?Your Answer: Rationalization
Correct Answer: Denial
Explanation:The man’s denial was evident as he refused to acknowledge the external reality that his legs had been amputated. On the other hand, if he tried to change the subject and only reluctantly accepted the truth when pressed, it would suggest that he was suppressing his emotions and thoughts about the amputation.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 118
Correct
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Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?
Your Answer: Gustatory hallucinations
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A teenage girl is brought to the emergency room with deep cuts on her arm. She tells the doctor that she has been trying to extract the worms that are reproducing under her skin. However, the doctor finds no signs of infestation. What type of delusional disorder is she experiencing?
Your Answer: Capgras
Correct Answer: Ekbom's
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 120
Correct
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A child jumps from one subject to another without any clear link between them. What is the most appropriate term to describe this occurrence?
Your Answer: Derailment
Explanation:Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 121
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is classified as negative according to the PANSS coding system?
Your Answer: Hostility
Correct Answer: Stereotyped thinking
Explanation:The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 122
Incorrect
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What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos?
Your Answer: Latah
Correct Answer: Piblokto
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 123
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about dissociative seizures?
Your Answer: They are under voluntary control
Correct Answer: Post event prolactin levels are usually normal
Explanation:The absence of a serum prolactin increase is a characteristic of simple partial seizures, but this test is not reliable for prolonged status epilepticus as prolactin levels may remain normal. To obtain accurate results, blood samples should be taken within 20-30 minutes after the seizure and compared to a baseline sample. However, this test is becoming less common in specialized centers due to the risk of false positive results in cases of syncope and dissociative seizures, as reported by Mellers in 2005.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 124
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 125
Incorrect
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Can you provide an instance of a pareidolic illusion?
Your Answer: A thirsty traveller in the desert mistakes the heat rising from the sand as a pool of water
Correct Answer: An elderly man is able to see the face of his grandchild in the clouds as they pass over him
Explanation:The man’s longing for his girlfriend and the traveller’s thirst create affect illusions, distorting their perceptions. The woman who hears her mother when she sees the door open experiences a reflex hallucination, while the man who hears his wife’s voice describing something outside of his surroundings experiences an extracampine hallucination.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 126
Correct
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What is a true statement about the Addenbrooke's Cognitive Examination (ACE-III)?
Your Answer: It involves an assessment of visuospatial function
Explanation:– The ACE-III tests a broad range of cognitive functions
– It includes items testing visuospatial function
– Examples of visuospatial items include copying a cube and an infinity diagram, counting dots without pointing to them, and identifying incompletely formed letters
– The ACE-III is not helpful in diagnosing delirium.The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia
The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.
The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 127
Correct
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Which scales require evaluation by a healthcare professional?
Your Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 128
Incorrect
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What sign is exhibited by a patient with catatonia who moves their arm in the direction of minimal force applied by a psychiatrist and returns it to its original position after the force is removed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:The terms mitmachen and mitgehen are often used interchangeably in the literature, leading to confusion. However, it is important to note that mitgehen is a more severe manifestation of mitmachen, as it involves the examiner being able to move the patient’s body with minimal pressure, as seen in the anglepoise lamp sign.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 129
Incorrect
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What kind of hallucination is it when a man hears a woman scream every time the light turns on?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reflex
Explanation:Functional refers to the use of the same type of sensory input.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 130
Incorrect
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What is a characteristic of the alcohol dependency syndrome according to the guidelines in ICD-10?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salience
Explanation:The alcohol dependence syndrome, as defined in ICD-10, includes salience (of primacy) as a key feature. This refers to a state where obtaining of consuming alcohol becomes more important than previously significant aspects of a person’s life, such as family, relationships, of employment. Increased tolerance is also a part of this syndrome. However, narrowing of repertoire and relief drinking are not included in the ICD-10 definition. It is important to note that binge drinking is not considered a feature of the alcohol dependence syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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