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Question 1
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute. Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results: pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45), PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa), PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa), SaO2: 90%, Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28), BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2). Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?
Your Answer: Arterial pH
Correct Answer: CSF pH
Explanation:The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.
Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.
It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.
Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine
Explanation:The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.
Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.
When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.
The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.
Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.
Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes. When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?
Your Answer: French gauge (mm)
Correct Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)
Explanation:Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.
The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.
This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.
The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy. Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa. The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?
Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: Hypoventilation
Explanation:The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.
Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.
Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.
A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use. This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?
Your Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?
Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through α1 but also β receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak β2 action.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is to be operated. His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms. The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?
Your Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves
Explanation:The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.
The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.
The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.
The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.
Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:
Your Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA
Explanation:There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.
Current Effect
1 mA Tingling
5 mA Pain
15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
50 mA Respiratory arrest
100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 10
Correct
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Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance. Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?
Your Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure ˆ’ mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits. Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?
Your Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital: Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000. What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?
Your Answer: The potency of solution A is greater than solution B
Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery. Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.
The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations. She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital. What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.
A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.
While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.
Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Has a large volume of distribution
Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.
Your Answer: Intercostal nerve block
Explanation:An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.
An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.
This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:
Your Answer: Barbiturates include thiopental and methohexitone.
Explanation:Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.
Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used on Intensive therapy unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Question 19
Correct
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised inpatients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: Dampening of the response of the carotid body to hypoxaemia
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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