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Question 1
Correct
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Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes:
Your Answer: Inhalation of spores
Explanation:Cryptococcus neoformans is found in bird droppings and transmission is by inhalation of spores, thus the lung is the primary site of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection:
Your Answer: anti-HBs
Correct Answer: anti-HBc IgM
Explanation:Anti-HBc IgM antibodies are diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBc IgG antibodies indicate previous exposure, either chronic state or cleared infection. HBsAg is also positive in acute infection but is not diagnostic as this remains positive in chronic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 3
Correct
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When inserting a Seldinger chest drain for management of pneumothorax, the 'safe triangle' should be identified. Which of the following forms the inferior border of the 'safe triangle'?
Your Answer: 5 th intercostal space
Explanation:Care and management of the thoracostomy tubes (chest tubes) are subject to the direction and practice pattern of the responsible physician. Therefore, it is difficult to make a “one size fits all” set of instructions about the specific management recommendations for all chest tubes. It is recommended to discuss specific expectations for management with the patient’s attending physician. Facility specific Clinical Practice Guidelines (CPGs) may provide further guidance for one’s practice.Placement of the appropriately sized chest tube is performed on the affected side. The typical landmark for placement is the 4th or 5th intercostal space (nipple line for males, inframammary fold for females) at the anterior axillary line. The space above the 5th intercostal space and below the base of the axilla that is bordered posteriorly by the trapezius and anteriorly by the pectoralis muscle has recently been described as the safe triangle. Tubes are positioned anteriorly for pneumothoraces and posteriorly for fluid processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 4
Correct
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A 79-year-old male had a humeral shaft fracture during a road traffic accident and is being followed up in a fracture clinic. He complains of inability to use the limb 6 months after the injury. X-rays of that arm shows non union of his fracture.All the following are responsible for this non-union EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:An imbalance between bone resorption and formation is Osteoporosis. In normal bone, formation and resorption are roughly equal, and the density of bone matrix remains constant but there is more resorption in osteoporosis and the matrix density reduces and bones become weaker. Fractures are more likely to occur but healing is unaffected. Non-union of a fracture occurs when the two sides of a fracture fail to unite after 6 months. Causes include: infection, movement at the fracture site, avascular necrosis, tissue interposed between the fracture and gross misalignment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient with Conn’s syndrome will experience which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Explanation:Conditions to consider in the differential diagnosis of primary aldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome include hypertension, metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia, hypernatremia, and low renin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which of the following postinfectious complications is most commonly linked to Streptococcus pyogenes:
Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is caused by prior infection with specific nephritogenic strains of group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The clinical presentation of PSGN varies from asymptomatic, microscopic haematuria to the full-blown acute nephritic syndrome, characterized by red to brown urine, proteinuria (which can reach the nephrotic range), oedema, hypertension, and acute kidney injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Correct
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A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus. Today, he presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain in the emergency department. His blood sugar is drawn, which is markedly elevated to 7 mmol/L. Quick ABGs are drawn, which show metabolic acidosis. You diagnose the patient to be suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and immediately commence its treatment protocol in which insulin is also administered. Out of the following, which parameter is MOST likely to change due to initiating insulin?
Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:Diabetes ketoacidosis is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus. Insulin is administered to achieve euglycemia, and crystalloids or colloidal solution is administered to achieve euvolemia and euelectrolytaemia. Potassium levels severely fluctuate during the treatment of DKA, hypokalaemia being more common. Insulin promotes the cell to take up potassium from the extracellular space via increased sodium-potassium pump activity. It is important to monitor potassium levels during the treatment of DKA regularly. It is widely suggested that the normal saline shall be used for initial resuscitation, and once the potassium level is retrieved, the patient can be started on potassium replacement should the serum potassium level be between 3.3 and 4.5 mmol/L If potassium levels fall below 3.3 mmol/l, insulin administration may need to be interrupted to correct the hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss. The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?
Your Answer: Melanoma skin cancer
Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate is born with bilateral deafness as a result of this.From the following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Aminoglycosides cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic reactions:
Your Answer: Nuts
Explanation:Anaphylaxis can be triggered by any of a very broad range of triggers, but those most commonly identified include food, drugs, latex and venom. Of foods, nuts are the most common cause; muscle relaxants, antibiotics, NSAIDs and aspirin are the most commonly implicated drugs. Food is the commonest trigger in children and drugs the commonest in adults. A significant number of cases are idiopathic. Most reactions occur over several minutes; rarely, reactions may be slower in onset. The speed of onset of the reaction depends on the trigger e.g. intravenous medications will cause a more rapid onset than stings which in turn will cause a more rapid onset than ingestion of food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP reading of 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).Which of the following would be the patient's first-line drug treatment?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Afro-Caribbean man.An ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, or a low-cost angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB), such as losartan, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Caucasian man.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence
Correct Answer: It extends the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint
Explanation:Abductor pollicis longus is a muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It is one of the five deep extensors in the forearm, along with the supinator, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis.Abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), which is a continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.Blood supply to the abductor pollicis longus muscle comes from the interosseous branches of the ulnar artery.Acting alone or with abductor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus pulls the thumb away from the palm. More specifically, it produces (mid-) extension and abduction of the thumb at the first metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is seen in activities such as bowling and shovelling.Working together with the long and short extensors of the thumb, the muscle also helps to fully extend the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is important for loosening the hand grip, for example, when letting go of objects previously being held. Abductor pollicis longus also helps to abduct the hand (radial deviation) at the radiocarpal joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 14
Correct
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When calculating the ventilation over perfusion ratio of a male patient, you should remember the ideal V/Q ratio for this patient to compare with his results. What is the approximate ventilation value for a healthy male patient?
Your Answer: 5 L/min
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q ratio) is a ratio used to assess the efficiency and adequacy of the matching ventilation and perfusion. The ideal V/Q ratio is 1. In an average healthy male, the ventilation value is approximately 5 L/min and the perfusion value is approximately 5 L/min. Any mismatch between ventilation and perfusion will be evident in the V/Q ratio. If perfusion is normal but ventilation is reduced, the V/Q ratio will be less than 1, whereas if ventilation is normal but perfusion is reduced, the V/Q ratio will be greater than 1. If the alveoli were ventilated but not perfused at all, then the V/Q ratio would be infinity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?
Your Answer: Polyuria
Correct Answer: Severe cardiac failure
Explanation:Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure. It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:1. Anuria due to renal disease2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)3. Severe cardiac failure4. Severe dehydration5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding the neuronal action potential?
Your Answer: Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na + influx.
Explanation:The resting potential in most neurons has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation when there is Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response. The size of the action potential is constant and so, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. K+efflux is responsible for repolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 59-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.Which of the following medications will enhance warfarin's effects?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme potentiate the effects of warfarin, resulting in a higher INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibitors, use the mnemonic O DEVICES:O– OmeprazoleD– DisulfiramE– Erythromycin (And other macrolide antibiotics)V– Valproate (sodium valproate)I– IsoniazidC– CiprofloxacinE– Ethanol (acute ingestion)S- Sulphonamides
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?
Your Answer: The meninges are two layers of protective tissue that envelop the brain and spinal cord
Correct Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer
Explanation:Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever. There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers. The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 19
Correct
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Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:
Your Answer: Faecal-oral route
Explanation:Hepatitis A transmission is by the faecal-oral route; the virus is excreted in bile and shed in the faeces of infected people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 20
Correct
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Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.
Explanation:Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dobutamine infusion should be started.Which of the following receptors does dobutamine primarily affect?
Your Answer: Beta-1 receptors
Explanation:Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.A summary of the mechanism and effects of different inotropic agents is shown below:InotropeMechanismEffectsAdrenaline (epinephrine)Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;Alpha-agonist at high dosesIncreased cardiac output;Vasoconstriction at higher dosesNoradrenaline (norepinephrine)Mainly alpha-agonist;Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing dosesVasoconstriction;Some increased cardiac outputDopamineDopamine agonist at low doses;Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;Alpha-agonist at high dosesIncreased cardiac output;Vasoconstriction at higher dosesDobutamineMainly beta-1 agonistIncreased cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed. You suspect the bleeding is coming from Little's area based on your examination. Which of the blood vessels listed below is most likely to be involved:
Your Answer: Descending palatine and anterior ethmoidal arteries
Correct Answer: Sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
Explanation:The Kiesselbach plexus is a vascular network formed by five arteries that supply oxygenated blood to the nasal septum, which refers to the wall separating the right and left sides of the nose. The five arteries that form the Kiesselbach plexus: the sphenopalatine artery, which branches from the maxillary artery originating behind the jawbone; the anterior ethmoidal artery, which branches from the ophthalmic artery behind the eye; the posterior ethmoidal artery, which also branches from the ophthalmic artery; the septal branch of the superior labial artery, which is a branch of the facial artery supplying blood to all of the superficial features of the face; and finally, the greater palatine artery, which is a terminal branch of the maxillary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 23
Correct
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A young patient presents with the features of an easily recognisable infectious disease.Which of the following infectious diseases typically has an incubation period of less than 1 week? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera has an incubation period of 12 hours to 6 days.Other infectious disease that have an incubation period of less than 1 week include:Staphylococcal enteritis (1-6 hours)Salmonella enteritis (12-24 hours)Botulism (18-36 hours)Gas gangrene (6 hours to 4 days)Scarlet fever (1-4 days)Diphtheria (2-5 days)Gonorrhoea (3-5 days)Yellow fever (3-6 days)Meningococcaemia (1-7 days)Brucellosis has an incubation period of 7-21 days.Measles has an incubation period of 14-18 days.Falciparum malaria usually has an incubation period of 7-14 days. The other forms of malaria have a longer incubation period of 12-40 days.Rubella has an incubation period of 14-21 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 24
Correct
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Regarding propofol, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: A lower induction dose of propofol is required in children.
Explanation:Elderly patients have a reduced volume of distribution and slower clearance of the drug. They are therefore more sensitive to the effects of propofol and the drug wears off more slowly. They need less of the drug, which should be injected slowly, monitoring its effect on the patient. The opposite is true in children, who need larger doses of propofol. This is particularly so in children under three years of age. Propofol is not recommended for induction of anaesthesia in children under one month of age or for maintenance of anaesthesia in children under three years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 1-year-old male is brought to the paediatrician by his mother due to swelling of the right knee after a minor fall. On examination, the right knee is swollen, fluctuant and tender. Ultrasound-guided aspiration reveals a massive hemarthrosis. Family history shows that his older brother also has a bleeding disorder. Which one of the following conditions does the patient most likely have?
Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:A diagnosis of Haemophilia is supported in this patient by the family history and the presence of hemarthrosis-both characteristics of Haemophilia. Haemophilia A is caused by Factor VIII deficiency, leading to impaired coagulation. This disease typically presents after six months when the child starts crawling. Von Willebrand disease presents with nosebleeds and hematomas. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with bruises that resemble a rash. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency presents with haemolytic anaemia induced by specific drugs or foods. Factor V Leiden mutation causes blood clotting rather than bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia:
Your Answer: Muscle weakness
Explanation:Clinical features of hyperkalaemia may include: paraesthesia, muscle weakness or paralysis, cardiac conduction abnormalities and dysrhythmias. Clinical features of hypokalaemia may include: muscle weakness, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, ascending paralysis resulting in respiratory failure, constipation, gut ileus with distension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, impaired ADH action with polyuria and polydipsia, ECG changes and cardiac arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 27
Correct
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The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Prochlorperazine acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone as a dopamine antagonist.
Correct Answer: Of the antiemetics, cyclizine is most commonly associated with acute dystonic reactions.
Explanation:Cyclizine acts by inhibiting histamine pathways and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist which acts both peripherally in the GI tract and centrally within the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine-D2 receptor antagonist and acts centrally by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are both commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction. Cyclizine may rarely cause extrapyramidal effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She has a history of gout, and this discomfort is identical to prior relapses, according to her. She is currently taking 200 mg of allopurinol per day and has been for the last year. This is her second round of acute gout within this time period. She has no prior medical history to speak of and does not take any other medications. She doesn't have any known drug allergies.Which of the following management options is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE?
Your Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen
Explanation:Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout episode because it can both prolong and trigger another acute attack. Allopurinol should be continued in patients who are currently taking it, and acute attacks should be treated as usual with NSAIDs or colchicine, as needed.Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. Colchicine can be used in situations where NSAIDs are contraindicated, such as in patients with hypertension or those who have had a history of peptic ulcer disease. Because there is no reason for this patient to avoid NSAIDs, naproxen would be the medicine of choice from the list above.It would be reasonable to titrate up the allopurinol dose once the acute episode has subsided, targeting <6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l) plasma urate levels .Febuxostat (Uloric) is a drug that can be used instead of allopurinol to treat persistent gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen?
Your Answer: Chief cells
Explanation:The gastric chief cells in the stomach wall releases pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme. It mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach and is converted to pepsin. Pepsin breaks down proteins into peptides aiding protein digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
