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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic with asymmetrical pupils. Upon shining light...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic with asymmetrical pupils. Upon shining light into her eyes, the right pupil is 3 mm larger than the left. In a darkened room, the right pupil remains larger, but by only 1mm. Both pupils are regular in shape. She reports no discomfort, her sclerae appear normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no abnormalities. Her eye movements are also unaffected. The patient's father died from a brain tumor, and she is concerned that she may have the same condition. What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient’s anisocoria, which is worse in bright light, is Adie’s tonic pupil. This is because the pupil is unable to constrict properly, indicating dysfunction in the parasympathetic innervation. Adie’s tonic pupil is characterised by impaired pupil constriction due to ciliary ganglion dysfunction. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Horner syndrome, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat cytology in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical screening. She is curious about the testing procedure and knows that the sample will be screened for high-risk strains of HPV. The student inquires with the practice nurse about the next steps if the smear test comes back positive in the lab.
      What follow-up test will be conducted if the smear test shows high-risk HPV (hrHPV) positivity?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy testing

      Correct Answer: Cytology testing

      Explanation:

      Cytological examination of a cervical smear sample is only conducted if it tests positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV). If the sample is negative for hrHPV, there is no need for cytology testing.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after attempting to conceive for 12 months. Upon initial examination, it is determined that she is ovulating and her partner's semen analysis is normal. However, due to a history of menorrhagia, a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted which reveals a significant uterine fibroid causing distortion in the uterine cavity.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for myomectomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for large fibroids that are causing fertility problems is myomectomy, especially if the patient wishes to conceive in the future. Fibroids may not cause any symptoms, but they can lead to menorrhagia, bloating, dysuria, and sub-fertility. Medical therapies like anti-progestogens and gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists may temporarily reduce fibroid size, but they can also interfere with fertility. Surgical treatment, specifically myomectomy, is necessary in cases where fibroids are distorting the uterine cavity and affecting fertility. Myomectomy has been shown to improve fertility outcomes. The combined oral contraceptive pill may help reduce bleeding associated with fibroids, but it does not affect fibroid size and is not suitable for patients with sub-fertility due to fibroids. Endometrial ablation destroys the endometrial lining and reduces menstrual bleeding but is not appropriate for patients who desire fertility. Uterine artery embolisation is only recommended for patients who do not want to conceive as it can lead to obstetric risks such as placental abnormalities.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, leading to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?

      Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Heart Valves

      The heart valves play a crucial role in regulating blood flow through the heart. The tricuspid and mitral valves are located between the atria and ventricles of the heart. These valves have cusps, which are flaps of tissue that open and close to allow blood to flow in one direction. The papillary muscles, located in the ventricles, attach to the cusps of the valves and help to control their movement.

      Tricuspid Valve:
      The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the anterior and posterior papillary muscles, respectively. The septal cusp is attached to the septal papillary muscle.

      Mitral Valve:
      The mitral valve has two cusps: anterior and posterior. These cusps are not attached to papillary muscles directly, but rather to chordae tendineae, which are thin tendons that connect the cusps to the papillary muscles.

      Understanding the anatomy of the heart valves and their associated papillary muscles is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as valve prolapse or regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He has experienced several episodes of similar pain, usually on exercise. Increasingly he has found the pain beginning while he is at rest. A diagnosis of angina pectoris is made.
      Which branch of the coronary arteries supplies the left atrium of the heart?

      Your Answer: Left marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Branches

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are two main coronary arteries: the left and right coronary arteries. These arteries branch off into smaller arteries that supply different parts of the heart. Here are some of the main branches and their functions:

      1. Circumflex artery: This artery supplies the left atrium.

      2. Sinoatrial (SA) nodal artery: This artery supplies the SA node, which is responsible for initiating the heartbeat. In most people, it arises from the right coronary artery, but in some, it comes from the left circumflex artery.

      3. Left anterior descending artery: This artery comes from the left coronary artery and supplies the interventricular septum and both ventricles.

      4. Left marginal artery: This artery is a branch of the circumflex artery and supplies the left ventricle.

      5. Posterior interventricular branch: This artery comes from the right coronary artery and supplies both ventricles and the interventricular septum.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary arteries is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?

      Your Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Head Lice

      Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:

      Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.

      Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.

      Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.

      Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.

      Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.

      In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer is in hospice care. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer is in hospice care. He is becoming weaker with loud audible breath sounds and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute. He has a very weak cough.
      Which of the following medications may be of most benefit?

      Your Answer: Saline nebuliser

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous infusion of hyoscine hydrobromide

      Explanation:

      Managing Respiratory Secretions in Palliative Care: Medications and Interventions

      Towards the end of life, patients may experience difficulty in clearing respiratory secretions due to underlying disease and a weakening cough reflex. This can cause discomfort and distress. There are several medications and interventions that can be used to manage respiratory secretions in palliative care.

      Subcutaneous infusion of hyoscine hydrobromide is appropriate for patients with a weak cough. This anticholinergic medication helps dry up secretions and is recommended at a dose of 400 micrograms every 4 hours by subcutaneous injection, or more if required.

      Saline nebulisers can be used to loosen secretions in patients who can still cough strongly.

      Intravenous dexamethasone has no role in treating noisy respiratory secretions at the end of life.

      Low-dose morphine can be used to treat shortness of breath in palliative care, but other medications would be used first for patients suffering from secretions.

      Chest physiotherapy, including chest clearance exercises, can be useful for patients who are unable to cough up secretions, but is unlikely to benefit patients who are able to cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old male presents with severe, sharp pain on defecation. He has suffered...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with severe, sharp pain on defecation. He has suffered from constipation for several years but recently has had a few weeks of constant loose stools. He denies nausea or vomiting but does report intermittent blood in his stools and some possible weight loss over the past few months.

      He is independent and lives with his wife. His past medical history includes hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine once a day. He is also allergic to penicillin. On examination, you see an anal fissure at the 3 o'clock position.

      What is the initial step in the management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer to colorectal surgeons via 2 week wait pathway

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with an anal fissure, the location of the fissure can provide important information about the cause. A fissure located posteriorly is likely a primary fissure caused by constipation or straining, and a high-fiber diet may be recommended as part of the management plan. However, if the fissure is located laterally, it suggests a secondary cause and further investigation is necessary, especially if the patient has experienced changes in bowel habits, weight loss, or blood in their stools. In this case, an urgent referral to a specialist team is required, and a routine colonoscopy is not appropriate.

      For an acute, primary anal fissure caused by constipation or straining, a combination of bulk-forming laxatives, a high-fiber diet, lubricants, and analgesia may be recommended to make passing stools easier while the fissure heals. However, if the fissure is caused by persistent loose stools, this management plan would not be appropriate.

      For a chronic, primary anal fissure, a trial of topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) may be recommended, but this would not be appropriate for a case requiring urgent investigation.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Her parents report that she had a cold for a few days but today her breathing has become more difficult. She has a history of viral-induced wheeze and was recently diagnosed with asthma by her GP.

      Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28/min, heart rate is 120/min, saturations are 95%, and temperature is 37.5ÂșC. She has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze, but responds well to salbutamol.

      What medications should be prescribed for her acute symptoms upon discharge?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all children who experience an acute exacerbation of asthma receive a short course of oral steroids, such as 3-5 days of prednisolone, along with a salbutamol inhaler. This approach should be taken regardless of whether the child is typically on an inhaled corticosteroid. It is important to ensure that patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler and understand how to use it. Prescribing antibiotics is not necessary unless there is an indication of an underlying bacterial chest infection. Beclomethasone may be useful for long-term prophylactic management of asthma, but it is not typically used in short courses after acute exacerbations. A course of 10 days of prednisolone is longer than recommended and may not be warranted in all cases. A salbutamol inhaler alone would not meet the recommended treatment guidelines for acute asthma.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      55.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Palliative Care (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed