00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the neurology clinic due to recurring headaches that...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the neurology clinic due to recurring headaches that happen once a month. She also reports experiencing peculiar flashes before the onset of pain. During an attack, she feels exhausted and finds relief by resting in a dark room. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what medication should be prescribed for symptom prevention?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is the preferred medication for migraine prevention in women of childbearing age, as it is safer than topiramate which is teratogenic. Both medications are equally effective, but propranolol has a better side effects profile. Amitriptyline can also be used for migraine prophylaxis, but it is usually reserved for cases where propranolol and topiramate are ineffective. Paracetamol is only recommended for acute management of migraine, while sumatriptan is only recommended for acute management and should not be taken more than twice a week to avoid medication overuse headaches.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden onset of pain and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden onset of pain and swelling in his left testicle. During the examination, the physician notes the absence of the cremasteric reflex. What additional finding would provide the strongest evidence for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retracted testicle

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is characterized by sudden onset of acute pain, unilateral swelling, and retraction of the testicle, along with the absence of the cremasteric reflex. This distinguishes it from other causes of testicular pain and swelling, such as epididymitis and epididymo-orchitis, which typically have a slower onset. Perianal bruising is not a symptom of testicular torsion, but rather a sign of perianal hematoma. Although testicular torsion is usually very painful, a pain score below 8/10 does not necessarily rule it out. A temperature is more indicative of an infective process like epididymo-orchitis. While testicular torsion is more common in adolescents, it can also occur in a 32-year-old male, but other causes of testicular swelling should also be considered.

      Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).

      The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      691.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the main argument put forth by advocates of legalizing the trade...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main argument put forth by advocates of legalizing the trade of human organs?

      Your Answer: Commercialisation is not ethically preferable to the gift model of organ donation

      Correct Answer: Shortages or surpluses would be eliminated

      Explanation:

      The Ethics of Commercial Organ Donation

      The debate surrounding commercial organ donation is a contentious one. Advocates argue that it would eliminate surpluses and deficits in organs, as well as put an end to the black market that currently exists and exploits the poor. However, the ethics of exploiting live donors in impoverished countries cannot be ignored.

      While the idea of commercial organ donation may seem like a solution to the shortage of organs for transplantation, it is important to consider the potential consequences. The exploitation of live donors in impoverished countries is a very real concern, and it is not ethical to take advantage of those who are in desperate need of money. Additionally, the idea of commodifying organs raises questions about the value of human life and the potential for exploitation of vulnerable populations.

      In conclusion, while the idea of commercial organ donation may seem like a solution to the shortage of organs, it is important to consider the ethical implications. The exploitation of live donors in impoverished countries is not acceptable, and any solution to the shortage of organs must be approached with caution and a commitment to ethical principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia...

    Incorrect

    • In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia in febrile patients, 100 consecutive individuals were tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The study found that a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L had a negative predictive value of 95% in identifying bacteraemia.

      What does this negative predictive value signify?

      Your Answer: 5% of the patients who do not have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L

      Correct Answer: 5% of the patients who have serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L would be expected to have bacteraemia

      Explanation:

      Negative Predictive Value in Bacteraemia Testing

      Negative predictive value is the proportion of patients who test negative for a disease and do not actually have it. In the case of bacteraemia testing, if a patient has a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L, they are considered negative for the disease. It is estimated that 95% of these patients do not have bacteraemia, while 5% do have the disease.

      It is important to note that the number of patients being tested does not affect the negative predictive value. This value is solely based on the proportion of patients who test negative and do not have the disease. negative predictive value is crucial in accurately interpreting test results and making informed medical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering her for 6 weeks. During the examination, she experiences pain on the radial side of the wrist when the thumb is forcefully adducted and flexed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the tendons on the lateral side of the wrist and thumb leads to de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. To diagnose this condition, Finkelstein’s test can be performed by quickly deviating the hand medially. If there is a sharp pain along the distal radius, it is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and depression and takes various medications. She also reports not having a menstrual period for the past four months. During examination, a small amount of galactorrhoea is expressed from both breasts, but no other abnormalities are found. The following investigations are conducted: Prolactin levels are at 820 mU/L (50-550), 17β-oestradiol levels are at 110 pmol/L (130-550), LH levels are at 2.8 mU/L (3-10), FSH levels are at 2.7 mU/L (3-15), T4 levels are at 14.1 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH levels are at 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5). What is the probable cause of her galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia and Hypogonadism in a Female with Schizophrenia

      This female patient is experiencing galactorrhoea and has an elevated prolactin concentration, along with a low oestradiol concentration and a low-normal luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Pregnancy can be ruled out due to the low oestradiol concentration. The cause of hyperprolactinaemia and subsequent hypogonadism is likely drug-induced, as the patient is a chronic schizophrenic and is likely taking antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or newer atypicals like olanzapine. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists and can cause hyperprolactinaemia.

      It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia can cause hypogonadism, and in this case, it is likely due to the patient’s medication. Other side effects of these drugs include extrapyramidal, Parkinson-like effects, and dystonias. It is crucial for healthcare providers to consider the potential side effects of medications when treating patients with chronic conditions such as schizophrenia. Proper monitoring and management of these side effects can improve the patient’s quality of life and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      115.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his face after spending a few hours in the garden the previous day. He was prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection a few days ago. Upon examination, you notice a severe erythematosus reaction with the formation of several vesicles on all sun-exposed areas. The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l (neutrophils 6.2) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Skin biopsy Necrotic keratinocytes

      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: cephalexin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Photosensitivity Reactions and Associated Antibiotics

      Photosensitivity reactions are a common adverse effect of certain medications. There are two main types of drug-induced photosensitivity: an immediate sunburn-type reaction and an allergic dermatitis-type reaction. Trimethoprim is one of the drugs that can cause an acute-type reaction, along with tetracyclines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, diuretics, vitamin A derivatives, anti-fungals, and others. Adequate sunblock and topical corticosteroids are the main components of treatment for these reactions.

      Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, cephalexin, and cefaclor are antibiotics that are more classically associated with different types of allergic reactions. Amoxicillin is associated with an erythematous rash in the context of glandular fever or an allergic reaction causing urticaria, while co-amoxiclav is also associated with an erythematous rash and rare cases of angio-oedema. cephalexin and cefaclor are more commonly associated with an allergic reaction causing urticaria, and in rare cases, angio-oedema, erythema multiforme, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant

      Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
      What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.

      Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.

      Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis

      When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.

      Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.

      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.

      In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and embarrassing leakage. She reports that it disrupts her work in the office as she has to constantly go to the toilet. However, she denies any association of the leakage with coughing or laughing. The patient's BMI is 32kg/m², and a vaginal examination shows no pelvic organ prolapse and an ability to initiate voluntary contraction of the pelvic floor muscles.

      What initial investigations would you include for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT kidneys, ureter and bladder

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick and culture

      Explanation:

      When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is crucial to eliminate the possibility of a UTI and diabetes mellitus as underlying causes. The first step in investigating urinary incontinence would be to conduct a urine dipstick and culture test, which can be easily done in a GP’s office. Other initial investigations include keeping a bladder diary for at least three days and undergoing urodynamic studies. It is important to note that the reliability of urine dip tests is questionable in women over 65 years of age and those who have catheters. A three-day bladder diary is necessary for initial investigations, and a one-day diary would not suffice. CT scans are not typically used to investigate urinary incontinence but are useful in detecting renal pathology such as ureteric calculi. Cystoscopy is not appropriate for this patient and is usually reserved for cases where bladder cancer is suspected.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints and large peripheral joints. X-rays confirmed a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
      The majority of patients with this disease are positive for which one of the following molecules?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      The Role of Human Leukocyte Antigens in Autoimmune Diseases

      Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) play a crucial role in the development of autoimmune diseases. Different HLAs are associated with specific autoimmune conditions. For example, HLA-B27 is present in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as reactive arthritis and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-Cw6 is associated with psoriasis vulgaris, while HLA-B8 is linked to hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). HLA-DR4 is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and HLA-DR2 is linked to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Japanese people, multiple sclerosis, and Goodpasture syndrome. Understanding the role of HLAs in autoimmune diseases can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on his neck. During examination, a sebaceous cystic swelling measuring 2 cm in diameter is found in the left anterior neck triangle near the midline, with a punctum on top. The surgeon makes an elliptical incision around the cyst and removes the skin with the central punctum. The cyst is then removed to a depth of 1 cm. You have been tasked with closing the skin wound. What is the best option?

      Your Answer: Nylon

      Correct Answer: Monocryl

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Suture Material for Skin Closure

      When it comes to closing a skin defect, several factors need to be considered, including the location of the wound, required tensile strength, cosmesis, and ease of stitch removal, especially in children. Monocryl, a monofilament absorbable suture, is the best choice for achieving optimal cosmetic results. Nylon, another monofilament suture, is also a reasonable option, but Monocryl’s absorbable nature eliminates the need for stitch removal, making it more practical for children. Steri-strips may not provide enough strength to keep the wound closed, while staples are more likely to cause scarring. Silk, a multi-filament non-absorbable suture, is not ideal for achieving optimal cosmesis. Therefore, choosing the right suture material is crucial for achieving the best possible outcome in skin closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of recurring lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of recurring lower back pain for the past 8 months. He reports that his back feels painful and stiff upon waking up and lasts for 2-3 hours, but gradually improves throughout the day. The patient's medical history includes a resolved case of Achilles tendonitis. What physical examination finding would suggest the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Increased forward flexion

      Correct Answer: Reduced chest expansion

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by clinical findings such as reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, and reduced forward flexion (Schober’s test). The patient’s back pain is likely due to inflammation, as it is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. Young men with inflammatory-like back pain should be evaluated for AS. Achilles tendonitis can be a complication of AS and may have been the cause of the patient’s past symptoms. AS can lead to reduced chest expansion due to rib involvement, leading to breathing discomfort and shallower breaths over time. This can result in scarring and reduced chest expansion. However, increased forward flexion and lateral flexion are not typical findings in AS, as the inflammatory condition decreases flexibility. Localized spinal tenderness is also not a common finding in AS, and if present, malignancy or fracture should be suspected.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is initiated on digoxin....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is initiated on digoxin. What is the mode of action of digoxin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?

      Your Answer: Tibial fracture

      Correct Answer: Humeral fracture

      Explanation:

      Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault with a brick. She complains of abdominal pain and being hit with a brick on her front and back. On examination, she has bruising on her left costal margin and flank, but her abdomen is not distended. Her GCS is 15/15. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 132/88 mmHg, heart rate 78/min, respiratory rate 13/min, and temperature 37.6ºC. Investigations reveal minimal free fluid in the abdomen and a small splenic haematoma on CT abdomen, and minimal free fluid around the left kidney on FAST. CT head is normal, and pregnancy test is negative. What is the best management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with analgesia and frequent observations

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows minimal intra-abdominal bleeding without any impact on their haemodynamic stability, it is not necessary to perform a laparotomy. In such cases, the patient should be treated conservatively and their vital signs should be monitored regularly. The patient should also be catheterised and cannulated at this point.

      If there is a small splenic haematoma and minimal free fluid in the abdomen, conservative management is the best course of action. Only severe splenic injuries and haemodynamic instability require exploratory laparotomy. A repeat CT scan of the abdomen is not necessary, and the patient should not be discharged. Instead, they should be closely monitored for any changes in their vital signs or level of consciousness.

      Managing Splenic Trauma

      The spleen is a commonly injured intra-abdominal organ, but in most cases, it can be conserved. The management of splenic trauma depends on several factors, including associated injuries, haemodynamic status, and the extent of direct splenic injury.

      Conservative management is appropriate for small subcapsular haematomas, minimal intra-abdominal blood, and no hilar disruption. However, if there are increased amounts of intra-abdominal blood, moderate haemodynamic compromise, or tears or lacerations affecting less than 50%, laparotomy with conservation may be necessary.

      In cases of hilar injuries, major haemorrhage, or major associated injuries, resection is the preferred management option. It is important to note that the management approach should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and circumstances. Proper management of splenic trauma can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      64.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Too much intravenous normal saline

      Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine

      Explanation:

      TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.

      Understanding TURP Syndrome

      TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.

      The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
      What is the most urgent management option?

      Your Answer: Doppler ultrasound scan (USS) of the testes

      Correct Answer: Scrotal exploration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.

      During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives...

    Correct

    • A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?

      Your Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

      Explanation:

      When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with intermittent mild pain and pins...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with intermittent mild pain and pins and needles sensation in her thumb and index finger. The pain is triggered by flexing her wrist or accidental hits and has been ongoing for a few weeks despite taking over the counter pain relief. She is worried about its persistence as it is affecting her work as a typist. What is the initial management strategy recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid injection

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, a trial of conservative treatment should be attempted initially, such as wrist splinting or a corticosteroid injection if necessary. This patient is experiencing classical symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, including pain and paraesthesia in the wrist and median nerve territory. Wrist splinting is the first-line option recommended by NICE, as it aims to immobilise the wrist and relieve pressure on the median nerve. Corticosteroid injections may be used alongside a wrist splint if conservative management is ineffective after 4-6 weeks. NSAIDs can be taken for pain relief, but they do not treat the underlying condition. Surgical decompression should only be considered if symptoms are severe or persist despite conservative treatment.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal...

    Correct

    • A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.

      Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days. She also complained of generalised aches and pains and feelings of thirst. She had recently been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer which had recurred. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and hypothyroidism. Her regular medications include paracetamol and thyroxine. Her general practitioner (GP) had started her on codeine yesterday. On examination, she appeared dehydrated and had a soft, but mildly distended, abdomen. Thyroid function tested 2 weeks ago was normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with cancer, especially those with metastatic cancer and osteolytic lesions. Breast, lung, and multiple myeloma are the most common cancers that cause hypercalcaemia. Symptoms include lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Treatment involves intravenous fluid resuscitation and bisphosphonates. Codeine can cause constipation, but if it lasts for more than five days, it may not be the cause. Hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome can also lead to constipation, but the patient’s thyroid function test is normal, and there are no other symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Malignant bowel obstruction causes absolute constipation, a distended abdomen, and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      85.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age of 27, she had a short stature, a webbed neck and a broad, shield-like chest. She did not develop secondary sexual characteristics at the appropriate age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders Affecting Sexual Development

      Turner Syndrome, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, and 5-α Reductase Deficiency are genetic disorders that affect sexual development.

      Turner Syndrome is a condition where a woman is missing a whole or part of an X chromosome. This can cause delayed puberty, failure to develop normal secondary sexual characteristics, and cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. This can cause ambiguous genitalia at birth and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome in women, and hyperpigmentation in men.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where men carry an extra X chromosome. This can cause tall stature, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and delayed motor and language development.

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is a condition where patients with a male karyotype fail to respond to androgen hormones and thus develop female external genitalia and characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency is a condition associated with an inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to abnormal sexual development and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of intense pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of intense pain in his left eye, particularly when exposed to light, and blurred vision. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease, which is being managed with azathioprine. Upon examination, there is conjunctival injection at the cornea-sclera junction, increased tearing, and a smaller pupil in the left eye compared to the right. What is the necessary treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pilocarpine and β-blocker drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This patient’s history of Crohn’s disease increases their risk of developing acute uveitis. Steroid drops are necessary to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegic drops prevent adhesions between the lens and iris and relieve spasms of the ciliary body. Antibiotic drops are not indicated for anterior uveitis, as they are used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Antihistamine drops are used for allergic conjunctivitis, topical NSAID drops for episcleritis, and pilocarpine and β-blocker drops for acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are on a pediatric liaison rotation, and have been asked to talk...

    Correct

    • You are on a pediatric liaison rotation, and have been asked to talk to a 6-year-old patient with known ADHD. Upon trying to take a history from him, you struggle to follow his train of thought, as he keeps saying things like: 'I like pizza, it's so cheesy and easy -- my dog is brown, he likes to run around -- I have a blue pencil, it's my favorite utensil -'. You suspect that his thought process is characterized by rapid shifts from one idea to another without any apparent connection.
      What is the medical term for this psychiatric symptom?

      Your Answer: Clang associations

      Explanation:

      White kite, bright light, tight fight – these are examples of clang associations, where words are linked by their similar sounds or rhymes. It is a symptom often seen in individuals with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. However, this patient is not currently displaying any signs of psychosis or mania. It is important to note that aphasic speech, where the patient loses the ability to form language, and echolalia, where they repeat words or phrases of others, are different from clang associations.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man with known squamous-cell lung cancer presents with facial swelling, shortness...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with known squamous-cell lung cancer presents with facial swelling, shortness of breath and a headache. On examination, he has a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and inspiratory stridor when he raises his hands above his head for one minute. Chest X-ray and computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest confirm superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction.
      Which of the following treatments will provide the best long-term symptom relief?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava (SVC) stenting

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Superior Vena Cava Obstruction in Lung Cancer Patients

      Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is a common complication in patients with lung cancer. While dexamethasone infusion is the immediate treatment to reduce swelling, it only provides short-term relief. The best option for long-term symptom relief is SVC stenting, which prevents any obstruction. However, it is not always successful, and symptoms may reoccur if the tumour re-compresses the SVC. Inhaled daily steroids and inhaled beta-agonists are not effective in treating SVC obstruction. Brachytherapy is used to treat prostatic cancer and not squamous cell lung cancer. Therefore, SVC stenting remains the best option for long-term symptom relief in lung cancer patients with SVC obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
      Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
      Investigations Results Normal values
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?

      Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Urine analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:

      24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.

      Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.

      Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.

      Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.

      Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side for the past two weeks. These headaches occur at least once a day, often at night, and last for about an hour. He has also noticed tearing from his right eye and blockage of his right nostril during the headaches. However, at the time of examination, he was not experiencing any headache and there were no physical abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men, with a ratio of 10:1 compared to women. These headaches usually occur at night, particularly in the early morning. They are characterized by paroxysmal episodes, which means they occur in clusters. One of the distinguishing features of cluster headaches is the presence of autonomic symptoms, such as lacrimation, ptosis, pupil constriction, nasal congestion, redness of the eye, and swelling of the eyelid.

      It is important to note that individuals with cluster headaches typically have normal examination results between attacks. This means that there are no visible signs of the headache during periods of remission. the symptoms and characteristics of cluster headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/4) 50%
Miscellaneous (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed