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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and emptiness. He lost his job 8 months ago and has been struggling to focus on his daily activities ever since. 'I'm just not the same person I used to be,' he tells the doctor. He has no interest in finding a new job and spends most of his time at home. He denies any thoughts of suicide. His sleep is disturbed and he wakes up feeling tired. He also reports a decreased interest in sex with his partner. His medical history is significant only for a bilateral hand tremor that worsens with movement. He is a non-smoker and only drinks socially. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Major depressive disorder

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Major Depressive Disorder from Other Conditions

      Major depressive disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by symptoms such as anhedonia, sadness, lack of concentration, sleep impairment, social withdrawal, and hopelessness. It is often triggered by a significant stressor, such as job loss. While severe depression can also be a component of adjustment disorder, the duration of symptoms beyond 6 months following a stressor suggests a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Anhedonia, a significant lack of interest in once pleasurable activities, is a symptom rather than a diagnosis by itself and is often present in major depressive disorder. Drug abuse can be a cause or effect of depression, but in this case, the patient’s recent stressor makes drug-related depression less likely. The patient’s hand tremor, worsened by movement, is more likely related to essential tremor than Parkinson’s disease, which typically presents with a resting hand tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Accurately distinguishing major depressive disorder from other conditions is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?

      Your Answer: >80ml total blood loss per menses

      Correct Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive

      Explanation:

      The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant

      Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains...

    Correct

    • You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains of a lump in the middle of his abdomen. On examination, you note a mass arising from the site of surgical incision, which is reducible and reproducible when the patient coughs.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of an incisional hernia?

      Your Answer: Wound infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Incisional Hernia Development

      An infected wound can increase the risk of developing an incisional hernia due to poor wound healing and susceptibility to abdominal content herniation. Increasing age is also a risk factor, likely due to delayed wound healing and reduced collagen synthesis. However, being tall and thin does not increase the risk, while obesity can increase abdominal pressure and lead to herniation. A sedentary lifestyle does not appear to be associated with incisional hernias, but smoking and nutritional deficiencies can increase the risk. Post-operative vomiting, not nausea alone, can cause episodic increases in abdominal pressure and increase the risk of herniation. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the development of incisional hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.

      The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.

      Your Answer: Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months

      Correct Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood

      By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).

      A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.

      Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.

      Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.

      Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At...

    Incorrect

    • You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.

      Your Answer: 7

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot drop. Upon examination, it is found that she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. There is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of her foot. All reflexes are present and plantars flexor. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneal Neuropathy

      Peroneal neuropathy is a condition that typically manifests as sudden foot drop. When a patient is examined, the weakness in the foot and ankle is limited to dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes, as well as eversion of the ankle. However, the ankle reflex (which is mediated by the tibial nerve) and the knee reflex (which is mediated by the femoral nerve) remain intact. In terms of sensory involvement, the lower two-thirds of the lateral leg and the dorsum of the foot may be affected.

      It is important to note that peroneal neuropathy is distinct from other nerve issues that may affect the lower leg and foot. For example, sciatic nerve problems may result in impaired knee flexion, while tibial nerve lesions may lead to weakness in foot flexion and pain on the plantar surface. By the specific symptoms and signs of peroneal neuropathy, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
      - Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
      - 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
      - Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
      - Dexamethasone suppression test:
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Adrenocortical tumour

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.

      In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.

      The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      77.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of contraception. She had visited her pharmacist the day before and received the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill after engaging in unprotected sexual activity. As her healthcare provider, you recommend the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the appropriate time for this patient to begin taking the COCP?

      Your Answer: 7 days after the emergency contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Starting hormonal contraception immediately after using levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill is safe. However, if ulipristal was used, hormonal contraception should be started or restarted after 5 days, and barrier methods should be used during this time. Waiting for 7 or 30 days before starting hormonal contraception is unnecessary as levonorgestrel does not affect its efficacy. A pregnancy test is only recommended if the patient’s next period is more than 5-7 days late or lighter than usual, not routinely after taking levonorgestrel.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old woman presents with complaints of abdominal swelling, vomiting, and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents with complaints of abdominal swelling, vomiting, and weight loss that have been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. She has a 30-year history of smoking. Imaging reveals bilateral ovarian tumors and a mass in the stomach. A biopsy taken during gastroscopy confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What histological characteristics are expected in the ovarian masses?

      Your Answer: Cells that resemble the endocervix

      Correct Answer: Signet ring cells

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Ovarian Tumours and their Histological Features

      Ovarian tumours can be classified into various types based on their histological features. Here are some examples:

      Krukenberg tumours:
      These are secondary tumours that originate from the gastrointestinal tract and metastasize to the ovaries. They are characterized by the presence of signet ring cells.

      Fibromas:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that can cause Meigs’ syndrome. They contain spindle-shaped fibroblasts.

      Granulosa cell tumours:
      These are ovarian tumours that are most commonly seen in the first few decades of life. They contain Call-Exner bodies, which are follicles containing eosinophils.

      Brenner tumours:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that contain transitional cells.

      Mucinous cystadenomas:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that contain cells that resemble endocervical cells. However, if the tumour is malignant, it may not have this characteristic feature.

      In conclusion, the histological features of ovarian tumours can provide important clues about their origin and potential malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/3) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
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