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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with a past medical history of chronic constipation complains of sudden perianal pain. The pain has been persistent for a week and worsens during bowel movements. Additionally, he reports observing a small amount of bright red blood on the toilet paper after wiping.
Upon examination, the abdominal region appears normal, but rectal examination is not feasible due to the patient's discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Fissure
Explanation:Anal Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment
Anal fissures are a common condition characterized by perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is often accompanied by fresh bleeding. The history of these symptoms is typical of a fissure, although visualization of the fissure is often not possible due to the pain associated with rectal examination. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly, and in the acute phase, GTN cream can provide relief in two-thirds of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man comes to his GP with scrotal swelling and pain that has been developing for the past three days. Upon examination, the testes are palpable but tender to touch, and the scrotum is red and warm. What is the initial investigation that should be performed?
Your Answer: Testicular ultrasound
Correct Answer: Urethral swab for NAAT
Explanation:When investigating suspected epididymo-orchitis, the approach should be tailored to the patient’s age and sexual history. For sexually active young adults, a NAAT for STIs is the most appropriate first-line test. On the other hand, older adults with a low-risk sexual history should undergo a mid-stream urine sample (MSSU) test.
Based on the clinical presentation, the patient is likely suffering from epididymo-orchitis, which is an infection of the testes and epididymis. The underlying cause can be determined by considering the patient’s epidemiology. In younger males who are sexually active, the most probable cause is a sexually transmitted infection, hence a urethral swab for NAAT is the most appropriate initial test.
Alpha-fetoprotein is not a suitable investigation in this case. It is a tumour marker for non-seminomatous germ cell tumour, a type of testicular cancer that presents with unilateral swelling and does not appear infected.
A full blood count and CRP may indicate the presence of an infection, but they do not help identify the underlying cause or guide treatment. While these investigations are expected in epididymo-orchitis, they are not the first-line tests.
A mid-stream urine sample is useful in older men who are not likely to have a sexually transmitted infection but may have a urinary tract infection as the cause of the infection.
Testicular ultrasound is not necessary in this case as it is used to investigate hydrocele or varicocele, which are not present in this patient.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old businesswoman comes to the GP complaining of persistent pain and swelling in her forefoot. She reports that she recently relocated to London for a new job and spends a lot of time on her feet, often wearing high heels. The pain is exacerbated when she bears weight on her foot, and squeezing the area reproduces the discomfort. Based on these symptoms, which bone is most likely affected by a stress fracture?
Your Answer: Medial cuneiform
Correct Answer: 2nd metatarsal
Explanation:Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.
Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.
Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has come to the clinic with a recent rectal bleed. He reports passing around 200 ml of fresh blood. During the examination, he appears stable and experiences no abdominal discomfort. Rectal examination shows fresh blood on the glove. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Angiodysplasia
Explanation:Causes and Management of Rectal Bleeding in the Elderly
Rectal bleeding is a common complaint among elderly patients, with most cases resolving with conservative measures. The leading cause of fresh rectal bleeding in this population is diverticular disease, followed by angiodysplasia, which is a malformation of the intestinal blood vessels. Colon cancer rarely presents with bleeding, and bleeding hemorrhoids are uncommon in the elderly. On the other hand, rectal bleeding resulting from a duodenal ulcer is usually severe and can rapidly lead to hemodynamic instability. In such cases, patients are treated with transfusion as necessary.
Angiodysplasia is characterized by cherry-red areas seen during colonoscopy, and it is thought to result from obstruction of the mucosal veins. To confirm the cause of severe rectal bleeding, selective mesenteric angiography is performed. This diagnostic procedure also allows for the control of bleeding by selectively embolizing the offending vessel. Overall, prompt evaluation and management of rectal bleeding in the elderly are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 38-year-old construction worker complains of sudden onset groin pain on the left side that radiates from the flank. The pain is intermittent but excruciating when it occurs and is not related to movement. The patient's examination, observations, and blood tests are normal, but a urine dip reveals ++ blood. The patient reports that his job involves heavy lifting and he rarely takes breaks. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ureteric calculus
Explanation:The young man is experiencing pain on his right side, from his lower back to his groin, and has microscopic blood in his urine. It is suggested that he may be frequently dehydrated due to his job. Based on these symptoms, it is highly likely that he has a kidney stone on his right side, which is causing the colicky pain. Although his job involves heavy lifting, there is no indication of a visible lump during examination, making a hernia unlikely.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days ago for a fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 120 kg. During her previous visit, her ECG showed that she had AF with a heart rate of 180 bpm. She was prescribed bisoprolol and advised to undergo a 48-hour ECG monitoring. Upon her return, it was discovered that she has non-paroxysmal AF.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Send her for urgent electrical cardioversion
Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure
When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with a NOAC or warfarin is also necessary. Cardioversion with amiodarone should not be the first line of treatment due to the patient’s heart failure. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may not be the best option either. Amlodipine is not effective for rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Overall, the treatment plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and medical history.
Managing Atrial Fibrillation and Heart Failure: Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presents with pain and stiffness in her left knee, which she’s had for the last 4 months. On further questioning, she also has pain and stiffness in her right wrist and the distal interphalangeal joint of her left index finger. Her symptoms are worse in the morning and seem to improve throughout the day. She reports that her late mother also had joint problems; but does not know the diagnosis, although she recalls that her fingers were completely swollen before she started treatment.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:In many instances, arthritis symptoms are identified prior to the onset of psoriasis. Symmetrical polyarthritis is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A premature neonate is delivered via category II emergency caesarean section at 34+3 weeks for fetal distress. The obstetrician notes the baby is delivered with the cord wrapped around its neck and appears floppy and 'blue'. The neonatal team immediately begins resuscitation as the initial APGAR score is 3. At 10 minutes, the score is 5 due to cyanosis, heart rate of 120 bpm, minimal response to stimulation, poor tone, slow and irregular respiratory effort with a respiratory rate of 12/min. What is the most appropriate management of this premature neonate to reduce hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)?
Your Answer: Sedation and intubation
Correct Answer: Therapeutic cooling
Explanation:Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury
Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.
The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.
Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
Allergy – penicillin
Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
Drug history – bisoprolol.
Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?Your Answer: 1 l of crystalloid (0.9% sodium chloride)
Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)
Explanation:In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old female complains of intermittent pain from her lower back to her groin and has visible blood in her urine. She is experiencing discomfort and cannot find a comfortable position. Upon examination, there are no indications of peritonitis. Which diagnostic test is most likely to be effective?
Your Answer: CT KUB
Explanation:Non-enhanced computed tomography scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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