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  • Question 1 - Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of...

    Correct

    • Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:

      1. Coherence & Consistency

      2. Temporal Precedence

      3. Specificity

      As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL. Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: It decreases during normal sleep

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.

      Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).

      BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.

      BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.

      BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?

      Your Answer: End diastolic LV volume / stroke volume

      Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the...

    Correct

    • You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa. Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.

      The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.

      The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery. If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.

      Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.

      Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.

      Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.

      Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for...

    Correct

    • A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs. How the data would be analysed?

      Your Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

      ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

      In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer: Two

      Correct Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting...

    Correct

    • A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute. Which value best approximates to the FiO2?

      Your Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.

      For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.

      The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:

      Your Answer: Side effects typically include visual field defects with long term use

      Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease

      Explanation:

      Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.

      Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone

      Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.

      Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Low altitude

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein...

    Correct

    • The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?

      Your Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

      Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

      One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer: Coefficient of viscosity

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered 'collapsed' in bed. The child had been admitted the day before with febrile convulsions and was scheduled to be discharged. It is safe to approach the child. What should your first life-saving action be?

      Your Answer: Apply a gentle stimulus and ask the child if they are alright

      Explanation:

      Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.

      After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.

      Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.

      It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.

      CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)...

    Correct

    • The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:

      Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.

      Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.

      The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:

      Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)

      The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:

      It should follow a 12 -hour fast
      No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
      It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Bacterial DNA synthesis inhibition

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All β-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The β-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
      1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
      2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
      nerves:
      Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
      Radial groove: radial nerve.
      Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
      Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing....

    Correct

    • A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing. It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid. Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?

      Your Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane

      Explanation:

      Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

      Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

      Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

      The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

      The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

      P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

      Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries. He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed. Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?

      Your Answer: Epidural with 20 mL 0.5% bupivacaine and 2 mcg/mL fentanyl

      Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion

      Explanation:

      With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.

      Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.

      2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).

      Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.

      The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea, chest pain, and an ECG that shows ST elevation. The ST segment of the ECG corresponds to a period of slow calcium influx in the cardiac action potential. This equates to which phase in the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
      The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Correct

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent...

    Correct

    • An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol. Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?

      Your Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:

      NNT = 1/ARR

      Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) €“ EER (Experimental Event Rate).

      NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.

      In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:

      ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05

      NNT = 1/0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon. Multiple...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon. Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.

      It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment. On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture. What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.

      Your Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure

      Explanation:

      BMR is lower in females than males.

      It decreases with increasing age.

      There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)

      BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (3/3) 100%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (4/7) 57%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (5/8) 63%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (3/3) 100%
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