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  • Question 1 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Correct Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter infection

      Explanation:

      The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      97
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with...

    Correct

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infection causes; jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, microcephaly, hearing loss and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected recurrent volvulus

      Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery

      Explanation:

      Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      117.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %-85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %-13 % and medications account for 5 %-12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to know the chances of her next unborn child having the same condition.

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that is a 50% chance of having a son with haemophilia and 50% chance of the daughters being carriers of the haemophilia gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Correct

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?

      Your Answer: Decreases glucose absorption

      Correct Answer: Increases insulin production

      Explanation:

      Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and tragal tenderness. The exam shows a normal tympanic membrane and ear cleaning was done. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic drop with steroid

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are suggestive of otitis externa. The key treatment for otitis externa is ear cleaning and antibiotic drops with steroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Correct

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      151.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal; however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent eye blinking, facial grimacing, grunting, and sniffing. He has enough control to suppress them at times, but not always. They are happening at school, and his classmates are starting to notice.Which among the following would be the best initial step in the treatment of the child?

      Your Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the above clinical scenario, of a child presenting with motor and vocal tics for more than a year is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Tourette syndrome. The symptoms often wax and wane, and although several different drugs are available, none are entirely useful, and side-effects are relatively common. With these considerations in mind, it is essential to try and avoid treatment initially as the tics can spontaneously improve with time. Informing the teacher and class about the nature of the condition and allowing the child ‘time out’ to tic might help to avoid the need for medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis? ...

    Correct

    • Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis

      Explanation:

      Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Xanthomas

      Explanation:

      CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells. Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen. Basophils are not present. The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?

      Your Answer: Inferior oblique

      Correct Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT)

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      92
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition...

    Incorrect

    • What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition in an X-liked dominant condition?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance, sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However, in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Angelman's syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Angelman's syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 22

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Appearance of axillary hair

      Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement; the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Cord blood haemoglobin > 18g/dL

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?

      Your Answer: Microscopy, gram stain and culture

      Correct Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Explanation:

      Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assayBeta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Andersen syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Correct

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/3) 0%
Endocrinology (3/6) 50%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed