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Question 1
Correct
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The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?
Your Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules
Explanation:Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.
It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.
It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.
The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6μm (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 μm is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 μm. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 μm and throughout the ranges 8-12 μm.
IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.
IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.
The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.
Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.
The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 2
Correct
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When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas. Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C. The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.
Your Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) ˆ’ SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa ˆ’ 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?
Your Answer: Naturally occurring drugs are mostly racemic mixtures
Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound
Explanation:A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.
Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin. What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?
Your Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to β-lactamase production which opens the β-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.
Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA
Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively. What is the value of absolute risk reduction?
Your Answer: 5%
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)
ARR= 0.2-0.25
ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)
ARR= 5%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Correct
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The α-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the α-2 agonists. α-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of α-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors α-1 and α-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the α -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the α-2: α-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective α-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the α-2 receptor. In the case of α-2: α-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of α-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the α-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral α-1 and α-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k). Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k). Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?
Your Answer: Drug A has the same clearance as drug B
Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B
Explanation:The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).
A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.
According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.
CL = Vd x k
For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute
For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute
Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:
Your Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose
Explanation:The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.
Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.
CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.
The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.
The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:
Your Answer: The parasympathetic nervous system has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres
Correct Answer: Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole parasympathetic control
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension. Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?
Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 13
Correct
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What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?
Your Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable
Explanation:Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.
Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 14
Correct
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With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no definite shape, particles are not tightly packed together. These are incompressible although there is free movement within the volume. This statement best describes which one of the following states of matter?
Your Answer: Liquid
Explanation:The solid state of matter has a definite volume and shape and particles are packed closely together and are incompressible. Within this tight lattice, there is enough thermal energy to produce vibration of particles.
Liquids however have a volume but no definite shape. These particles are less tightly packed together. Although there is free movement within the volume, they are incompressible.
Gases, however, have no finite shape or volume and particles are free to move rapidly in a state of random motion. They are compressible and are completely shaped by the space in which they are held. Vapours exist as a gas phase in equilibrium with identical liquid or solid matter below its boiling point.
The most prevalent state of matter in the universe is plasma which is formed by heating atoms to very high temperatures to form ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 15
Correct
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All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:
Your Answer: Barbiturates include thiopental and methohexitone.
Explanation:Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.
Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used on Intensive therapy unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram. What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?
Your Answer: T12
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.
A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteriesThere are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Concerning the trachea, which of these is true?
Your Answer: Is made up of 12 C-shaped cartilaginous rings
Correct Answer: In an adult is approximately 15 cm long
Explanation:In an adult, the trachea is approximately 15 cm long. It extends at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra, from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage.
The trachea terminates between T4 and T6 at the carina or bronchial bifurcation. This variation is because of changes during respiration.
The trachea has 16-20 C-shaped cartilaginous rings that maintain its patency.
The trachea is first of the 23 generations of air passages in the tracheobronchial tree (not 25), from the trachea to the alveoli..
The inferior thyroid arteries which are branches of the thyrocervical trunk, arise from the first part of the subclavian artery and supplies the trachea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Long head of triceps
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain. Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?
Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.
The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)
1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteriesThe posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.
The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery. Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?
Your Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins. Which of the following types of study could that have been?
Your Answer: Case-control study
Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4
Explanation:In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.
During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.
Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.
Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by:
Your Answer: Rapid calcium influx
Correct Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a pulmonary capillary?
Your Answer: 13 mmHg
Correct Answer: 17 mmHg
Explanation:The starling forces operate to maintain a homeostatic flow across the pulmonary capillary bed.
The outward driving force comprises of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (13 mmHg), negative interstitial fluid pressure (zero to slightly negative), and interstitial colloid osmotic pressure (17 mmHg). The inward driving force is controlled by the plasma colloid osmotic pressure (25 mmHg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side. What is this vessel most likely to be?
Your Answer: External carotid artery
Correct Answer: Common carotid artery
Explanation:There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.
The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person. Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?
Your Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age
Explanation:Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?
Your Answer: Lipid solubility
Correct Answer: Protein binding
Explanation:When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to α1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.
The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.
Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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