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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

      What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?

      Your Answer: Opening pressure: increased; neutrophil-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: decreased

      Correct Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased

      Explanation:

      CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes

      Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:

      1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.

      2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.

      3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.

      4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.

      5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.

      In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home pregnancy test and symptoms of diarrhoea and mild abdominal discomfort that have been present for 6 hours. She has not been using any regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. The patient has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube without a visible heartbeat, and her serum B-HCG level is 1200 IU/L. What is the definitive indication for surgical management in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum HCG concentration

      Correct Answer: Foetal sac size

      Explanation:

      Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies with a foetal sac larger than 35mm or a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, as per NICE guidelines. Foetal sacs larger than 35mm are at a higher risk of spontaneous rupture, making expectant or medical management unsuitable. The size of the foetal sac is measured using transvaginal ultrasound. Detection of a foetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound requires urgent surgical management. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not an indication for surgical management, although it is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Serum HCG levels between 1,500IU/L and 5,000 IU/L may be managed medically if the patient can return for follow-up and has no significant abdominal pain or haemodynamic instability. A septate uterus is not an indication for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, but it may increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.8
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old male comes to see his doctor complaining of a painful swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male comes to see his doctor complaining of a painful swelling in his left knee, along with dysuria and discharge from both eyes. He is typically healthy but had a bout of diarrhea three weeks ago. He has no medical history or allergies. During the examination, you observe that the patient has a swollen left knee and several waxy, scaly patches on the soles of his feet.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are the preferred initial treatment for acute reactive arthritis, unless there are any contraindications. The classic presentation of reactive arthritis includes arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, which can occur weeks after an initial infection, such as dysentery. Keratoderma blennorrhagica, which are scaly patches on the soles of the feet, can also be present in reactive arthritis. While paracetamol can be used for pain relief, it is not as effective as ibuprofen. If NSAIDs cannot be used, steroids may be considered. If inflammation persists, disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) like sulfasalazine or methotrexate may be used.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      982
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old male patient visits their GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits their GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that began six weeks ago. He has never experienced anything like this before and believes he may have lost some weight in the past three months. When asked about his family history, he mentions that his father was diagnosed with bowel cancer at the age of 30, and he remembers his grandfather having a stoma before he passed away when the patient was a child. The GP suspects bowel cancer and is concerned about a potential genetic abnormality. During colonoscopy, a large tumour is discovered in the ascending colon near the hepatic flexure, but the rest of the colonic mucosa appears normal. What is the most probable underlying genetic issue?

      Your Answer: Lynch Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by over 100 colonic adenomas and a 100% cancer risk. MYH-associated polyposis has a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and a 100% cancer risk by age 60. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome has a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas and an increased risk of GI cancers. Cowden disease has a mutation in the PTEN gene and is associated with multiple intestinal hamartomas and an 89% risk of cancer at any site. HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) has germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with a high risk of colorectal and endometrial cancer. Screening and management strategies vary for each syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the last 6 months. His past medical history includes hypertension, gout and a previous myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His current medications are as follows:
      diltiazem 60 mg orally (po) twice daily (bd)
      spironolactone 100 mg po once daily (od)
      allopurinol 100 mg po od
      paracetamol 1 g po four times daily (qds) as required (prn)
      lisinopril 20 mg po od.
      Given this man’s likely diagnosis, which of the above medications should be stopped?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Uses and Contraindications

      Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can treat angina and hypertension, but it should be stopped in patients with chronic heart disease and heart failure due to its negative inotropic effects.

      Spironolactone can alleviate leg swelling and is one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, along with ACE inhibitors and β-blockers.

      Allopurinol is safe to use in heart failure patients as it is used for the prevention of gout and has no detrimental effect on the heart.

      Paracetamol does not affect the heart and is safe to use in heart failure patients.

      Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and angina, and stopping it can worsen heart failure. It is also one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure. The mechanism by which ACE inhibitors reduce mortality is not fully understood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Karyotyping

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis

      Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.

      CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.

      Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most suitable time to collect blood samples for therapeutic monitoring...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable time to collect blood samples for therapeutic monitoring of digoxin levels in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: At least 6 hours after last dose

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic Drug Monitoring: Guidelines for Monitoring Lithium, Ciclosporin, Digoxin, and Phenytoin Levels

      Lithium levels should be monitored 12 hours after the last dose, with the target range being 0.4-1.0 mmol/l. Ciclosporin levels should be measured immediately before the next dose, while Digoxin levels should be checked at least 6 hours after the last dose. Phenytoin levels do not need to be monitored routinely, but trough levels should be checked before the next dose if there is a need to adjust the dose, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

      Therapeutic drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, especially for drugs with narrow therapeutic windows. The guidelines for monitoring lithium, ciclosporin, digoxin, and phenytoin levels vary depending on the drug and the patient’s condition. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure that the patient receives the optimal dose of medication and to prevent adverse effects. Proper monitoring of drug levels can also help detect non-adherence to the prescribed medication, which can affect treatment outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide safe and effective treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is admitted to the hospital due to vomiting caused by norovirus. His blood tests from 2 months ago were as follows:
      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 120 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      However, his blood tests today show:
      - Sodium (Na+): 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 10.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Digoxin level: 3.1 ng/ml (0.8-2.0)

      Which of his regular medications is likely responsible for his digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Digoxin toxicity is often caused by hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to bind more easily to the ATPase pump on cardiac myocytes. Normally, potassium would compete for the same binding site as digoxin. However, in the absence of sufficient potassium, digoxin’s inhibitory effects are increased. In this case, the patient’s hypokalaemia was caused by bendroflumethiazide, which also led to vomiting and hyponatraemia. The patient’s renal function was not significantly affected, ruling out acute kidney injury as a cause of the hypokalaemia. Ramipril, aspirin, and amlodipine are unlikely to cause digoxin toxicity, although other calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem can reduce digoxin excretion via the kidneys.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a trip to Thailand. He has no known history of liver disease. Laboratory results reveal bilirubin levels of 210 µmol/l, ALT levels of 1206 iu/l, ALP levels of 405 iu/l, PT of 10 s, and albumin levels of 41 g/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Hepatitis with Jaundice

      Acute hepatitis with jaundice can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the blood tests indicate significant hepatocellular damage as the cause of the patient’s jaundice, making viral hepatitis the most likely option.

      Acute hepatitis B is a common cause of jaundice, especially in endemic regions like Asia. The patient may have acquired the infection through sexual contact or needle-sharing. The acute infection usually lasts for 1-3 months, and most patients make a full recovery.

      Acute hepatitis C is less likely as it is usually asymptomatic in adults, and only a small percentage develops symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis, on the other hand, presents with an insidious onset of pruritus and lethargy, followed by jaundice, and causes a cholestatic picture. Acute alcoholic hepatitis rarely causes an ALT >500 and should be suspected if another cause or concomitant cause is present. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is chronic and usually leads to mildly abnormal liver function tests in patients with risk factors for the metabolic syndrome.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute hepatitis with jaundice, and in this case, viral hepatitis is the most likely option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.3
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting fresh blood after a 72-hour drinking binge. He denies regular alcohol abuse.

      During the examination, his pulse is found to be 92 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 146/90 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Causes of Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including Mallory-Weiss tears, aortoduodenal fistula, Meckel’s diverticulum, oesophageal varices, and peptic ulcers. Mallory-Weiss tears occur in the gastro-oesophageal junction due to forceful or prolonged coughing or vomiting, often after excessive alcohol intake or epileptic convulsions. This can result in vomiting bright red blood or passing blood per rectum. Aortoduodenal fistula is caused by erosion of the duodenum into the aorta due to tumour or previous repair of the aorta with a synthetic graft. Meckel’s diverticulum, which occasionally occurs in the ileum, may contain ectopic gastric mucosa, leading to rectal bleeding. Oesophageal varices are dilated venous collaterals that result from portal hypertension in patients with liver cirrhosis. Finally, peptic ulcers are the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeds, with mucosal erosions developing due to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, or prolonged alcohol abuse. Despite the potential severity of these conditions, bleeding usually stops spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      23.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
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