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Question 1
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A 42-year-old accountant presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with flank pain and an episode of frank haematuria. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and has had similar symptoms before. She attributes this episode to another UTI. She also has hypertension which is well controlled with ramipril. The doctor is concerned regarding the history of recurrent UTIs, and patient is further investigated for her symptoms with blood tests and ultrasound imaging. Results of the bloods and ultrasound confirms a diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which of the following is true regarding PKD?
Your Answer: Is usually inherited as an autosomal recessive condition
Correct Answer: Is associated with berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis
Explanation:Polycystic Kidney Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Associations
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and other organs. It is caused by mutations in either the PKD1 or PKD2 gene, which leads to the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys. Here are some important facts about PKD:
Associations with other conditions: PKD is associated with cerebral berry aneurysms, liver cysts, hepatic fibrosis, diverticular disease, pancreatic cysts, and mitral valve prolapse or aortic incompetence.
Inheritance: PKD is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disease. Autosomal recessive PKD is rare and has a poor prognosis.
Kidney involvement: Both kidneys are affected by PKD, with cysts replacing the functioning renal parenchyma and leading to renal failure.
Age of onset: PKD usually presents in adult life, but cysts start to develop during the teenage years. The mean age of ESRD is 57 years in PKD1 cases and 69 years in PKD2 cases.
PKD is a complex disorder that can have serious consequences for affected individuals. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?
Your Answer: Mesangial amyloid deposits
Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules
Explanation:Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases
Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.
Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.
Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:
1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.
2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.
3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.
4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.
5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.
Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Radiofrequency ablation
Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs
Explanation:Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases
Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.
Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to you with bilateral palpable flank masses and headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg and creatinine is 176.8 μmol/l. She has no past medical history of this, but her family history is significant for renal disease requiring transplant in her mother, brother and maternal grandmother.
On which chromosome would genetic analysis most likely find an abnormality?Your Answer: Chromosome 22q11
Correct Answer: Chromosome 16
Explanation:This information provides a summary of genetic disorders associated with specific chromosomes and genes. For example, adult polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant condition linked to mutations in the polycystin 1 (PKD1) gene on chromosome 16. This disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to renal failure and other symptoms such as hypertension, urinary tract infections, and liver and pancreatic cysts. Other important chromosome/disease pairs include BRCA2 on chromosome 13, which is associated with breast/ovarian/prostate cancers and Fanconi anemia, and the VHL gene on chromosome 3, which is linked to von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, a condition characterized by benign and malignant tumor formation on various organs of the body. Additionally, mutations in the FXN gene on chromosome 9 can result in Friedreich’s ataxia, a degenerative condition involving the nervous system and the heart, while a deletion of 22q11 on chromosome 22 can cause di George syndrome, a condition present at birth associated with cognitive impairment, facial abnormalities, and cardiac defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thrombosis and distal embolisation from the fistula
Correct Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)
Explanation:Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients
AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?Your Answer: Chronic graft failure
Correct Answer: Acute graft failure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation
Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.
Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.
It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling in both legs extending from the groin area and dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Causes of Bilateral Lower Limb Edema: Differential Diagnosis
Bilateral lower limb edema can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with inferior vena cava obstruction, which is caused by extrinsic compression from a renal mass. This obstruction prevents venous drainage of the lower limbs and leads to bilateral edema and distended superficial abdominal veins. Other causes of bilateral lower limb edema include hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia, deep venous thrombosis, and heart failure. However, each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Hyponatremia and hypoalbuminemia cause generalized edema, while deep venous thrombosis presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected limb. Heart failure also causes bilateral dependent edema but does not lead to venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Renal Clinic for review. She has suffered from two recent urinary tract infections, and asymptomatic haematuria has been noted on urine dipstick testing on two separate occasions. She reports costovertebral angle tenderness on a few occasions in the past year. On examination, there is no residual tenderness today. Her blood pressure is 145/92 mmHg.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 256 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 145 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Abdominal plain X-ray Multiple pre-calyceal calcifications
affecting both kidneys, with a
‘bunch of grapes’ appearance
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Renal tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Medullary sponge kidney
Explanation:Understanding Medullary Sponge Kidney: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Medullary sponge kidney is a condition that is often asymptomatic and has a benign course. However, some patients may experience haematuria, urinary tract infections, or costovertebral angle pain due to renal stone formation. The diagnosis can be confirmed through abdominal X-ray, which shows characteristic findings consistent with medullary sponge kidney.
Recurrent urinary tract infections would not be associated with the X-ray findings, and neither would autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, which is a serious condition that leads to renal failure. Renal tuberculosis is unlikely to present with the X-ray findings, and reflux nephropathy, which is often diagnosed in childhood, would not lead to the same X-ray results.
Patients with medullary sponge kidney who are asymptomatic can be reassured about the benign nature of the condition. Those with recurrent urinary tract infections or stone formation should be advised to increase their oral fluid intake. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of medullary sponge kidney is important for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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