-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue?
Your Answer: Patients who complain of pruritus 4 weeks following treatment should be retreated
Explanation:It is typical for itching to continue for a period of 4-6 weeks after elimination.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin and lays its eggs in the stratum corneum, leading to intense itching. This itching is caused by a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites/eggs, which occurs about 30 days after the initial infection. Symptoms of scabies include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers, interdigital webs, and flexor aspects of the wrist. In infants, the face and scalp may also be affected. Scratching can lead to secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, while malathion 0.5% is second-line. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact with others until treatment is complete. All household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same time, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, contrary to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Patients should apply the insecticide cream or liquid to cool, dry skin, paying close attention to areas between fingers and toes, under nails, armpit area, and creases of the skin such as at the wrist and elbow. The insecticide should be left on the skin for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated 7 days later.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is seen in patients with suppressed immunity, especially HIV. The crusted skin will be teeming with hundreds of thousands of organisms. Isolation is essential, and ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal cough, and clear nasal discharge for the past three weeks. She reports experiencing similar symptoms around the same time last year and has a medical history of asthma. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. Proper management involves identifying and avoiding allergens, as well as using medication as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and red eye with watering and mild sensitivity to light. The diagnosis was uncertain, but it was suspected to be either episcleritis or scleritis. The on-call ophthalmologist was contacted, and they requested that a specific eye drop be administered to differentiate between the two conditions.
Which of the following eye drops is capable of distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis?Your Answer: Phenylephrine eye drops
Explanation:Distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis can be achieved using eye drops. By administering the drops, it is possible to observe whether the redness in the eye blanches or not. If it does, then the condition is episcleritis, but if it doesn’t, then it is scleritis. This skill is particularly valuable for those working in an Emergency Medicine rotation. None of the other options are useful for distinguishing between these two conditions.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Which of the following symptoms is not typically associated with a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Exclusion of underlying malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease is necessary as weight loss is not a characteristic of IBS.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marfan's syndrome
Explanation:The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is brought to his general practitioner by his daughter because of haematuria. While taking the history, it becomes apparent that he has had blood in his urine for the past two months and it has gotten progressively worse. Now he also has left flank pain. He has lost 8 lb in the past month without trying. He denies dysuria, fever, nausea and chills. His family history is significant only for ‘diabetes’ in both parents. He has a 40-pack-year history, drinks an occasional glass of wine and denies any history of illicit drug use.
On examination, he is afebrile and his vital signs are stable. On deep palpation of his left upper quadrant, there is a firm, non-mobile mass.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Haematuria, Flank Pain, and Palpable Mass
The patient in question presents with haematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass, which are indicative of renal cell carcinoma. This triad of symptoms is only seen in a small percentage of patients and is often referred to as the too late triad because it indicates a poor prognosis. Renal cell carcinoma arises from the epithelial lining of the proximal convoluted tubule and has a tendency to metastasize haematogenously.
Other potential diagnoses include chronic pyelonephritis with abscess formation, which is typically seen in patients with anatomical defects in the genitourinary tract. A partially obstructive renal calculus can also cause haematuria, but it is not associated with a palpable mass, and the history of insidious onset and unintentional weight loss are suggestive of malignancy.
Prostate cancer with retroperitoneal metastases is another potential diagnosis, but it does not typically cause haematuria. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is a possibility, given the patient’s smoking history and haematuria, but the flank pain and abdominal mass make renal cell carcinoma the most likely diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Explanation:Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.
Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.
Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.
Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has a history of hypertension and occasional headaches. During screening tests, her serum creatinine level is found to be elevated at 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and her haemoglobin level is low at 110 g/l (reference range 120–155 g/l). An X-ray of her chest shows a mass in her lung, and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
What is the most likely cause of her impaired renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Common Renal Disorders: Amyloidosis, Metformin Toxicity, Diabetic Nephropathy, Membranous Glomerulonephritis, and Urinary Tract Infection
Renal disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and can be caused by various factors. Here are five common renal disorders and their characteristics:
1. Amyloidosis: This disorder is caused by the deposition of abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Nearly 90% of the deposits consist of amyloid fibrils that are formed by the aggregation of misfolded proteins. In light chain amyloidosis (AL), the precursor protein is a clonal immunoglobulin light chain or light chain fragment. Treatment usually mirrors the management of multiple myeloma.
2. Metformin Toxicity: Metformin is a widely used antidiabetic agent that holds the risk of developing a potentially lethal acidosis. Its accumulation is feasible in renal failure and acute overdosage. Toxic accumulation of the drug requires time after the development of renal failure, due to high clearance of metformin.
3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This clinical syndrome is characterised by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Despite it being the most common cause of incident chronic renal failure, one should be wary about diagnosing diabetic nephropathy in the absence of proliferative retinopathy and proteinuria.
4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Some patients may present with asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Proteinuria is usually >3.5 g/24 h.
5. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Causes of UTIs in men include prostatitis, epididymitis, orchitis, pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, and urinary catheters. Dysuria is the most frequent complaint in men, and the combination of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency is about 75% predictive for UTI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of urine leakage when she coughs, sneezes, or laughs. She has been experiencing this for the past year intermittently, but it has become more severe over the last two months. She has no dysuria or haematuria and is in good health with no abdominal symptoms. All three of her children were delivered vaginally. A urine dip and culture test came back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:The most probable cause of urinary incontinence while coughing is stress incontinence. This occurs when the bladder neck drops below the levator ani sling, which can happen when there is increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as when coughing, laughing, or sneezing. Stress incontinence is characterized by leakage of urine during these activities. Neurogenic bladder, on the other hand, typically presents with overflow incontinence or retention, which is not limited to increased intra-abdominal pressure. Detrusor instability is associated with urgency and increased urinary frequency. Urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis are characterized by increased frequency, dysuria, pyrexia, and loin pain. In this case, the negative urine dip makes infection an unlikely cause.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of dull pain under her tongue while eating. This resolves after she finishes eating and has been gradually getting worse. Over the previous three days, this was also accompanied by swelling of the floor of her mouth. She is afebrile and all of her parameters are stable.
Which of the following is the first-line investigation that needs to be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-ray sialogram
Explanation:Investigating Salivary Gland Stones: Imaging and Laboratory Tests
Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling in the affected gland, especially during eating or chewing. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical examination, but imaging may be necessary in cases of diagnostic uncertainty or suspected secondary infection. X-ray sialography is the traditional first-line investigation, as it is cheap and highly sensitive. Ultrasound and more advanced techniques like magnetic resonance sialography and CT sialography may also be used, but X-ray sialography remains the preferred option. Laboratory tests like amylase levels and blood cultures are not typically used in the diagnosis of sialolithiasis, unless there is a suspicion of acute pancreatitis or secondary infection, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.
Treatment for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.
According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.
The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.
In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man has recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. While there, he consumed food from various street vendors. He complained of abdominal discomfort, bloating and loose stools. Analysis of three stool samples showed cysts in two of them. The patient was treated with metronidazole and showed improvement.
What is the probable medical condition in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Protozoal Parasite Causing Diarrhoeal Illness
Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia intestinalis (previously known as G. lamblia). It is prevalent in areas with poor sanitation and can cause asymptomatic colonisation or acute or chronic diarrhoeal illness. Travellers to highly endemic areas are at high risk of infection. Ingestion of as few as ten Giardia cysts can cause infection. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom of acute Giardia infection, occurring in 90% of symptomatic subjects. The traditional basis of diagnosis is identification of G. intestinalis trophozoites or cysts in the stool of infected patients via stool ova and parasite examination. Standard treatment consists of antibiotic therapy, and metronidazole is the most commonly prescribed antibiotic for this condition. Giardia infection may occur more commonly in families with X-linked agammaglobulinaemia and in sexually active men who have sex with men (MSM).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm pain, which is exacerbated by neck flexion. She has a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, obesity, and depression. Upon examination, there is no apparent muscle weakness or atrophy in the right arm, but there is some sensory loss in the middle finger and palm of the hand. Which nerve root is most likely to be affected by the impingement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C7
Explanation:Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed, along with helpful mnemonics to remember them.
Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on both his wrists that has been present for 1 week. Upon examination, the doctor notes small purplish papules on the flexural aspect of both wrists with a flat top and small white lines on the surface. The patient also has areas of hyperpigmentation on the inner aspect of his elbows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of lichen planus, a skin condition with an unknown cause that is likely immune-mediated. The rash is typically itchy and appears as papules with a shiny, purplish color in areas such as the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and may have white lines known as Wickham’s striae. Over time, the papules flatten and are replaced by hyperpigmentation. Oral involvement is common, with a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Management usually involves topical steroids, but more severe cases may require oral steroids or immunosuppressants. Atopic eczema, irritant eczema, molluscum contagiosum, and psoriasis are different skin conditions that do not fit the patient’s symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his mother due to the development of a limp. The mother noticed that his left hip was sore and stiff about a month ago. The pain has gradually worsened, making it difficult for the boy to walk and causing significant discomfort. The boy has a normal developmental history and is otherwise healthy. What is the probable underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is characterized by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to its necrosis and resulting in symptoms such as hip pain, stiffness, and limping. These symptoms are consistent with the presentation of a young boy experiencing progressive hip pain and reduced range of motion. The age of onset for Perthes’ disease typically falls within the range of 6-8 years old, further supporting this diagnosis.
While an epiphyseal plate fracture can also cause pain and limping, it is typically the result of a traumatic injury, which is not the case in this scenario. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is another potential cause of hip pain and limping, but it typically affects older children and progresses more slowly over several months. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is a medical emergency characterized by acute joint pain, swelling, and systemic symptoms, which are not present in this case.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
You assess a 10-month-old infant with parents of Jamaican descent. The parents have observed a minor bulge near the belly button. The child is healthy and falls on the 50th percentile. During the examination, you observe a small umbilical hernia that is less than 1 cm in size and can be reduced. What is the best course of action for this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that the vast majority resolve by the age of 4-5 years
Explanation:Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of hair loss and tremors. Her husband reports that she has become more irritable since starting her medication.
Which medication is the most likely culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate (Epilim®)
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Anticonvulsants and Analysis of Symptoms Associated with Different Medications
Anticonvulsants are commonly used to treat seizures, but they can also have side effects. One of the most common side effects of sodium valproate is hair loss, along with aggression and tremors. Levetiracetam is commonly associated with aggression and tremors, but rarely with alopecia. Carbamazepine is rarely associated with aggression or alopecia, and lamotrigine is commonly associated with aggression and tremors but not hair loss. Phenytoin is commonly associated with tremors but not the other symptoms mentioned. This analysis can help identify which medication may be causing certain symptoms. Other common side effects of anticonvulsants include fatigue, skin rashes, and gastrointestinal issues. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider about any concerns regarding medication side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is having difficulty reading the newspaper, particularly at night, and his symptoms appear to be fluctuating in severity. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes small deposits of extracellular material between Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium, but otherwise the examination is unremarkable. The patient has a history of lifelong smoking. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Dry macular degeneration is also known as drusen. This condition is characterized by a gradual loss of central vision, which can fluctuate and worsen over time. Symptoms may include difficulty seeing in low light conditions and distorted or blurry vision. There are two forms of macular degeneration: dry and wet.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances of death. Which of the following factors does not contribute to this risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age 49 years
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Mortality Prediction in Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can lead to mortality, especially in older patients. Several factors can increase the risk of death, including elevated urea levels, low blood pressure, leukopenia, and atrial fibrillation. To predict mortality in pneumonia, healthcare professionals use the CURB-65 score, which considers five parameters: confusion, urea >7 mmol/l, respiratory rate >30/min, systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg, and age >65 years. Each parameter scores a point, and the higher the total score, the higher the associated mortality.
Based on the CURB-65 score, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about treatment and admission to hospital. Patients with a score of 0 or 1 can be treated at home with oral antibiotics, while those with a score of 2 should be considered for hospital admission. Patients with a score of 3 or higher should be admitted to hospital, and those with a score of 4-5 may require high dependency or intensive therapy unit admission. However, individual circumstances, such as the patient’s performance status, co-morbidities, and social situation, should also be considered when making treatment decisions.
In summary, the CURB-65 score is a valuable tool for predicting mortality in pneumonia and guiding treatment decisions. By considering multiple factors, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this serious infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and complained of pleuritic chest pain.
Which of the following is the most definitive investigation to request?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism: A Comparison
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available for PE, but not all are equally effective. Here, we compare the most commonly used tests and their suitability for diagnosing PE.
CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard diagnostic test for PE. It is highly sensitive and specific, making it the most definitive investigation for PE. Patients with a history of recent surgery and subsequent symptoms pointing towards PE should undergo a CTPA.
Electrocardiography (ECG) is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE. Although classic ECG changes may occur in some patients with PE, they are not specific to the condition and may also occur in individuals without PE.
Chest radiograph is less definitive than CTPA for diagnosing PE. While it may show some abnormalities, many chest radiographs are normal in PE. Therefore, it is not a reliable test for diagnosing PE.
Echocardiogram may show right-sided heart dysfunction in very large PEs, but it is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE and is not definitive in the investigation of PE.
Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the chest is not recommended for the investigation of PE. It is a radioisotope functional imaging technique used in the imaging of tumours and neuroimaging, but not for diagnosing PE.
In conclusion, CTPA is the most definitive diagnostic test for PE and should be used in patients with a high suspicion of the condition. Other tests may be used in conjunction with CTPA or in specific cases, but they are not as reliable or definitive as CTPA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (normal range: 2–29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment
Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to target dopamine receptors in the anterior pituitary. While increased prolactin can indirectly decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion, GnRH receptors are not a therapeutic target in prolactin disorders. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion and is not a target in prolactin disorders. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and growth hormone secretion but does not affect prolactin levels. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but its use is limited due to side-effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who is concerned that she has been experiencing a few falls recently. She reveals that she has been getting confused and forgetful for the past two weeks. She has been complaining of dizziness and has vomited on a couple of occasions in the same time period. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension and osteoporosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma (SDH)
Explanation:Differentiating between types of intracranial hemorrhage
Intracranial hemorrhage can have various causes and presentations. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of intracranial hemorrhage:
Chronic subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage can be spontaneous or caused by head trauma. Symptoms tend to develop gradually and may fluctuate. They include headache, vomiting, personality changes, memory disturbances, and loss of consciousness. Patients with a history of AF and recurrent falls are at high risk of developing a chronic SDH.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): This type of hemorrhage occurs when blood accumulates in the space between the arachnoid and pia mater. The most common cause is rupture of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. The classical presentation of SAH is a sudden-onset, severe ‘thunderclap’ headache often accompanied by vomiting and meningism. The presentation is usually acute.
Acute subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage occurs due to tearing of cortical bridging veins leading to bleeding into the subdural space. An acute SDH usually follows a significant head injury. Loss of consciousness may occur immediately or a few hours after the injury.
Extradural hemorrhage: This type of hemorrhage is caused by the rupture of one of the meningeal arteries that run between the dura and the skull. It usually occurs following a significant head injury often in younger patients. There is classically a lucid interval following the injury, followed several hours later by rapid deterioration resulting in loss of consciousness.
Ischemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA): This type of event occurs due to a lack of blood flow to the brain. Patients with risk factors such as AF and hypertension are at higher risk. Classical CVA symptoms include sudden-onset unilateral weakness, speech difficulties, or visual loss which do not resolve within 24 hours. However, the patient’s symptoms in this case are not typical for a CVA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with one-sided visual loss. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. Fundoscopy reveals a 'cherry-red spot' with a red centre of the macula and a pale surrounding of the retina.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send patient to the Eye Hospital for immediate review by an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Central Retinal-Artery Occlusion: An Ocular Emergency
Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO) is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. It is diagnosed through a dilated eye examination that reveals a cherry-red spot in the center of the macula, surrounded by pale retina due to lack of blood flow. Other signs include segmentation of the blood column in the arteries and cattle-trucking.
CRAO is an ocular emergency because the retinal damage becomes irreversible with time, and urgent management is necessary to protect the other eye and the cardiovascular and cerebrovascular systems. The primary goal of management is to re-perfuse ischaemic tissue as quickly as possible and to institute secondary prevention early.
If giant-cell arteritis is suspected, immediate treatment is necessary, including intravenous steroids followed by oral steroids.
Referral under the 2-week-wait rule is necessary when there is a suspicion of cancer, but no signs of a tumor from history or fundoscopy findings.
It is crucial to refer the patient for urgent brain imaging and immediate review by an eye specialist. Starting the patient on topical antibiotics and anti-inflammatories would be inappropriate since there are no signs of an infection process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner with complaints of dark urine, nausea and overall weakness. She reports experiencing a seizure and was admitted to the hospital where she was diagnosed with a 'hormone tumor'. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC)
Explanation:Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC) is a type of lung cancer that is often associated with a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone syndrome (SIADH). SIADH is caused by the abnormal release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This can result in symptoms such as nausea, weakness, confusion, and seizures. While SCLC is the most common cause of SIADH, it can also be caused by other types of cancer, certain drugs, intracranial lesions, and infections. Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung, on the other hand, does not typically result in SIADH as it does not originate from neuroendocrine cells. Pancreatic cancer can also cause SIADH, but it is less common than in SCLC. Prostate cancer, which is the second most common cancer globally, does not usually present with hormonal effects but rather with lower urinary tract symptoms. Bronchial carcinoid tumors, which are neuroendocrine tumors of the lung, can cause hormonal effects such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and hirsutism, but these symptoms are not indicated in the scenario given.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of frequent watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, flatulence and nausea. Upon stool analysis, an elevated osmotic gap is detected with a pH < 6. The hydrogen breath test is positive.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactose intolerance
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and test results, it is likely that they have lactose intolerance. This diagnosis is supported by an increase in stool osmolality and a positive hydrogen breath test, which can be confirmed through dietary testing. While bowel malignancy is a possibility, additional symptoms such as rectal bleeding and weight loss would typically be present. Cows’ milk protein allergy is unlikely due to the patient’s age and the positive hydrogen breath test. Inflammatory bowel disease may have similar symptoms, but additional indicators such as weight loss, fever, and anemia would be present. Irritable bowel syndrome is not the most likely diagnosis and should only be considered after other possibilities have been ruled out.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history of restricting food intake weight loss and excessive exercise. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: Which Ones Are Necessary?
When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, certain medical investigations may be necessary to evaluate their overall health and identify any potential complications. However, not all investigations are routinely required. Here is a breakdown of some common investigations and when they may be necessary:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): A baseline ECG is important to assess for any cardiovascular instability, including heart rate and QT interval. Electrolyte abnormalities from eating disorders can impact cardiac stability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This investigation may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray (CXR): A CXR is not routinely required unless there is clinical concern of other respiratory symptoms.
Serum prolactin: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a clinical history or examination findings to suggest imaging of the heart is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)