00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You are working with a consultant paediatrician in an outpatient clinic and have...

    Incorrect

    • You are working with a consultant paediatrician in an outpatient clinic and have a 14-month-old patient who is failing to thrive. The GP suspects the presence of an audible murmur. The consultant informs you that this child has an atrial septal defect (ASD). What is the most prevalent form of ASD?

      Your Answer: Sinus venosus

      Correct Answer: Ostium secundum

      Explanation:

      Atrial Septal Defects

      Atrial septal defects (ASDs) are a type of congenital heart defect that occur when there is a hole in the wall separating the two upper chambers of the heart. The most common type of ASD is the ostium secundum defect, accounting for 75% of all cases. It is important to note that patent ductus arteriosus is not an ASD, but rather a connection between the aorta and pulmonary trunk that remains open after birth.

      Most patients with ASDs are asymptomatic, but symptoms may occur depending on the size of the defect and the resistance in the pulmonary and systemic circulation. Typically, there is shunting of blood from the left to the right atrium, causing an increase in pulmonary blood flow and diastolic overload of the right ventricle. This can lead to enlargement of the right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary arteries, as well as incompetence of the pulmonary and tricuspid valves. In severe cases, pulmonary arterial hypertension may develop, which can lead to cyanosis if the shunt reverses from right to left.

      It is important to note that right to left shunts cause cyanosis, while left to right shunts are generally not associated with cyanosis in the absence of other pathology. the pathophysiology of ASDs is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, ankle edema, and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, ankle edema, and difficulty breathing. The diagnosis is heart failure. Which of the following is the cause of the inadequate response of his stroke volume?

      Your Answer: Preload

      Explanation:

      The response of stroke volume in a normal heart to changes in preload is governed by Starling’s Law. This means that an increase in end diastolic volume in the left ventricle should result in a higher stroke volume, as the cardiac myocytes stretch. However, this effect has a limit, as seen in cases of heart failure where excessive stretch of the cardiac myocytes prevents this response.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and increasing orthopnoea. The physician suspects heart failure and orders a chest X-ray. What signs on the chest X-ray would indicate heart failure?

      Your Answer: A cardiothoracic ratio of 45%

      Correct Answer: Upper zone vessel enlargement

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following is not a branch of the external carotid...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Correct Answer: Mandibular artery

      Explanation:

      Mnemonic for branches of the external carotid artery:

      Some Angry Lady Figured Out PMS

      S – Superior thyroid (superior laryngeal artery branch)
      A – Ascending pharyngeal
      L – Lingual
      F – Facial (tonsillar and labial artery)
      O – Occipital
      P – Posterior auricular
      M – Maxillary (inferior alveolar artery, middle meningeal artery)
      S – Superficial temporal

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She has left-sided heart failure and her recent echo revealed a reduced ejection fraction. She complains of nocturnal breathlessness and needing multiple pillows to sleep.

      She is prescribed bisoprolol and another medication with the explanation that it will help decrease mortality.

      What is the probable medication she has been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of heart failure, medications are used to improve the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. Beta blockers, such as bisoprolol, are commonly prescribed to slow the heart rate and improve filling. The first-line drugs for heart failure are beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the patient in question will be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, as the second drug. Ramipril works by reducing venous resistance, making it easier for the heart to pump blood out, and lowering arterial pressures, which increases the heart’s pre-load.

      Carvedilol is not the correct choice for this patient. Although it can be used in heart failure, the patient is already taking a beta blocker, and adding another drug from the same class could cause symptomatic bradycardia or hypotension.

      Digoxin is not the appropriate choice either. While it can be used in heart failure, it should only be initiated by a specialist.

      Sacubitril-valsartan is also not the right choice for this patient. Although it is becoming more commonly used in heart failure patients, it should only be prescribed by a specialist after first and second-line treatment options have been exhausted.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old male with no past medical history is recently diagnosed with hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with no past medical history is recently diagnosed with hypertension. His GP prescribes him lisinopril and orders a baseline renal function blood test, which comes back normal. The GP schedules a follow-up appointment for two weeks later to check his renal function. At the follow-up appointment, the patient's blood test results show:

      Na 137 mmol/l
      K 4.7 mmol/l
      Cl 98 mmol/l
      Urea 12.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 250 mg/l

      What is the most likely cause for the abnormal blood test results?

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Correct Answer: Bilateral stenosis of renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Patients with renovascular disease should not be prescribed ACE inhibitors as their first line antihypertensive medication. This is because bilateral renal artery stenosis, a common cause of hypertension, can go undetected and lead to acute renal impairment when treated with ACE inhibitors. This occurs because the medication prevents the constriction of efferent arterioles, which is necessary to maintain glomerular pressure in patients with reduced blood flow to the kidneys. Therefore, further investigations such as a renal artery ultrasound scan should be conducted before prescribing ACE inhibitors to patients with hypertension.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      74.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old male on the wards has come to you with recent onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male on the wards has come to you with recent onset indigestion. He denies any red flag symptoms and has a medical history of hypertension, congestive heart failure, depression, and gout. Later in the day, while reviewing his routine blood results, you notice an abnormality.

      Here are his blood results from two days ago and today:

      Parameter 2 days ago Today
      Hb 135 g/l 134 g/l
      Platelets 310 * 109/l 312 * 109/l
      WBC 6.5 * 109/l 6.4 * 109/l
      Na+ 142 mmol/l 128 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 60 µmol/l 61 µmol/l

      What could be the reason for the discrepancy in his blood results?

      Your Answer: Excessive 0.9% NaCl infusions

      Correct Answer: Combined use of indapamide and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Severe hyponatraemia can occur when PPIs and thiazide diuretics are used together. The patient in question has recently experienced hyponatraemia, which is most likely caused by the combination of indapamide and omeprazole. It is probable that omeprazole was prescribed for his indigestion, while he is likely taking indapamide due to his history of congestive heart failure. It is important to note that the other options listed can cause hypernatraemia, not hyponatraemia.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      92.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute, severe shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute, severe shortness of breath.

      During the clinical examination, an elevated JVP is noted, and bilateral basal crackles are heard on auscultation. An S3 gallop is also heard on auscultation of his heart.

      The physician places him on high flow oxygen and positions him upright. You are asked to review the patient's medication chart and discontinue any medications that may be contraindicated in his current condition.

      Which medication should you discontinue?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary artery?

      Your Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery typically gives rise to the circumflex artery.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated in the clinic. A duplex scan reveals an 85% stenosis of the superficial femoral artery. After two weeks, he returns with a sudden onset of severe leg pain that has been present for an hour. Upon examination, absent pulses are noted in the affected limb, and it is significantly cooler than the opposite limb. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Thrombosis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an already present lesion, the probability of encountering a complication like thrombosis is higher than that of an embolus. To address this, patients should be administered heparin and undergo imaging with duplex scanning. Although an early surgical bypass or intra-arterial thrombolysis may be necessary, performing an embolectomy is generally not recommended as the lesion is not an embolus, rendering the operation ineffective.

      Understanding Claudication

      Claudication is a medical condition that causes pain in the limbs during physical activity. It is usually caused by arterial insufficiency, which occurs when atheroma develops in the arterial wall and blocks the blood flow to the tissues. The most common symptom of claudication is calf pain that worsens during exercise and improves with rest. However, if the disease is located in more proximal areas, other symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence may occur.

      The condition usually develops progressively, and in severe cases, it can lead to critical limb ischemia, which is characterized by severe pain, diminished sensation, pallor, and absent pulses. Risk factors for claudication include smoking, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

      To diagnose claudication, doctors may measure ankle-brachial pressure indices, perform duplex scanning, or conduct formal angiography. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition. Patients with long claudication distances and no ulceration or gangrene may be managed conservatively, while those with rest pain, ulceration, or gangrene will require intervention. All patients should receive an antiplatelet agent and a statin, unless there are compelling contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (3/10) 30%
Passmed