-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left hip pain. There is no history of recent trauma, but the patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and has been admitted multiple times in the past with similar symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Painkillers, oxygen and IV fluids
Explanation:To effectively manage sickle cell crisis, it is essential to administer analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids. In addition, antibiotics may be necessary if an infection is suspected, and transfusion may be required if the patient’s Hb levels are low.
It is not advisable to simply monitor patients without providing any treatment, as this would result in significant pain and discomfort.
The most effective approach involves a combination of oxygen, fluids, and analgesia. Pain management is crucial, as the blockage of blood vessels by sickle-shaped red blood cells prevents the delivery of oxygen and blood to the tissues, resulting in pain. Oxygen supplementation is necessary to alleviate this pain, and IV fluids can help to slow or halt the sickling process. None of these components alone would be sufficient in managing pain, but together they form a comprehensive approach to pain management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Crises
Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.
In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down syndrome. The mother mentions 'white speckles on his eyes'. Upon examination, you find a bilateral red reflex and no abnormalities. What is the mother describing?
Your Answer: Brushfield spots
Explanation:Brushfield spots, which are small grey or brown spots found on the outer edge of the iris, are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. Cataracts, on the other hand, involve clouding of the lens and are not likely present in this patient as their red reflex appears normal. Coloboma, a congenital defect that causes a gap in the lens, iris, or retina, is associated with Patau syndrome rather than Down syndrome. While there have been links between Down syndrome and congenital glaucoma, the patient’s history does not suggest this condition. A squint, or deviation in the gaze of an eye, is a separate issue altogether.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the child experiences constant urinary dribbling and dampness. A urine dipstick was negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe?Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Medications for Urinary and Bowel Issues in Children
Overactive bladder and nocturnal enuresis are common urinary issues in children. Here are some medications that can be used to treat these conditions:
1. Oxybutynin: This medication relaxes the urinary smooth muscle and is used to treat overactive bladder in children over 5 years old.
2. Imipramine: A tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a second-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis.
3. Desmopressin: A vasopressin analogue that can be used to treat nocturnal enuresis in children.
4. Duloxetine: A serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat stress urinary incontinence in women. It is not licensed for use in individuals under 18 years old.
In addition, loperamide is an opioid antimotility drug that can be used to treat diarrhoea caused by gastroenteritis or inflammatory bowel disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man is advised on the genetics of Huntington's disease. What is the best explanation for the concept of anticipation?
Your Answer: The psychological effect of a patient knowing they will develop an incurable condition
Correct Answer: Earlier age of onset in successive generations
Explanation:Trinucleotide repeat disorders exhibit earlier onset in successive generations due to anticipation, which is often accompanied by an escalation in symptom severity.
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and can enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature.
Examples of trinucleotide repeat disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. Friedreich’s ataxia is unique in that it does not demonstrate anticipation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 54-year-old woman presenting with painful hand movement. She had recently moved homes and had been carrying multiple heavy boxes during this time when the pain came on along her forearm. The pain is acutely worse when she is carrying objects but improves on rest.
Physical examination reveals that the pain was recreated with wrist extension and forearm supination when the elbow is extended. Maximal pain is palpated over the insertion of the common extensor tendon. No sensory or motor deficits were noted on examination.
What could be the possible cause of her pain?Your Answer: Medial epicondylitis
Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since her first period at age 13. She has a history of frequent nosebleeds in childhood. After a normal physical exam and ultrasound, what is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood test for coagulation disorder
Explanation:Women who have experienced heavy menstrual bleeding since their first period and have indications of a coagulation disorder in their personal or family medical history should undergo testing for such disorders, including von Willebrand’s disease. This recommendation is made by NICE CG44.
Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition
Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.
Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.
During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.
What medications will you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation of secondary prevention. He has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) two years ago. He is on a combination of clopidogrel, atenolol 50 mg once daily and atorvastatin 80 mg once daily. He also has diabetes for which he takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His pulse rate is 70 bpm, and blood pressure 144/86 mmHg. His past medical history includes an ischaemic stroke two years ago, from which he made a complete recovery.
What additional therapy would you consider?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Post-MI Patients with Vascular Disease and Diabetes
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for all patients, regardless of left ventricular function. This is based on evidence from trials such as PROGRESS and HOPE, which demonstrate the benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with vascular disease. Additionally, for patients with diabetes, the use of ACE inhibitors is preferable. The benefits of ACE inhibition are not solely related to blood pressure reduction, but also include favorable local vascular and myocardial effects. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine and diltiazem, are not recommended for post-MI patients with systolic dysfunction. Nicorandil should also be avoided. Clopidogrel is the preferred antiplatelet for patients with clinical vascular disease who have had an MI and a stroke. Blood pressure should be optimized in post-MI patients, and further antihypertensive therapy may be necessary, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor to achieve the desired level.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of dull pain under her tongue while eating. This resolves after she finishes eating and has been gradually getting worse. Over the previous three days, this was also accompanied by swelling of the floor of her mouth. She is afebrile and all of her parameters are stable.
Which of the following is the first-line investigation that needs to be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-ray sialogram
Explanation:Investigating Salivary Gland Stones: Imaging and Laboratory Tests
Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling in the affected gland, especially during eating or chewing. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical examination, but imaging may be necessary in cases of diagnostic uncertainty or suspected secondary infection. X-ray sialography is the traditional first-line investigation, as it is cheap and highly sensitive. Ultrasound and more advanced techniques like magnetic resonance sialography and CT sialography may also be used, but X-ray sialography remains the preferred option. Laboratory tests like amylase levels and blood cultures are not typically used in the diagnosis of sialolithiasis, unless there is a suspicion of acute pancreatitis or secondary infection, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for bladder cancer presents to the Emergency Department because she has noticed that the urine in her catheter is blood-stained.
On examination, the urine is pink in colour. Her observations are normal.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a full blood count
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Bladder Tumour and Bleeding
When managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding, it is important to consider the appropriate steps to take. Here are some options and their potential outcomes:
1. Arrange a full blood count: This test can help assess the degree of blood loss and guide the urgency of treatment.
2. Transfuse two units of O-negative blood: While patients with bladder tumours can bleed extensively, it is important to first assess the need for transfusion through a full blood count.
3. Flush the urinary catheter using normal saline: This step is appropriate for a blocked catheter, but not for a patient with active bleeding.
4. Remove the urinary catheter: This step can cause blood clots and urinary retention, and is not indicated for this patient.
5. Transfer to theatre for resection of tumour: While this may be necessary in cases of catastrophic bleeding, it is important to first assess the patient’s stability and obtain blood tests before planning definitive management.
In summary, careful consideration of the appropriate steps is crucial in managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)