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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He reports a recent decline in his vision, including distortion of lines and loss of central vision, which was particularly noticeable tonight.

      During the eye examination, you observe the presence of drusen and new vessel formation around the macula.

      As part of his discharge plan, you schedule a follow-up appointment with an ophthalmologist, suspecting that monoclonal antibody treatment targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may be necessary.

      What type of monoclonal antibody functions through this mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Abciximab

      Correct Answer: Bevacizumab

      Explanation:

      Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It is used to slow down the progression of wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), which is the condition described in this case. Treatment with bevacizumab should begin within the first two months of diagnosis of wet ARMD.

      Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets platelet IIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent blood clots in unstable angina or after coronary artery stenting.

      Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is primarily used to treat inflammatory arthritis.

      Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the IgE receptor, reducing the IgE response. It is used to treat severe allergic asthma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol abuse. The patient is currently being administered thiamine (vitamin B1) supplementation.

      What is the metabolic function of thiamine?

      Your Answer: It is important for the methylation of DNA

      Correct Answer: It is important for sugar catabolism

      Explanation:

      Thiamine plays a crucial role in the breakdown of sugars and amino acids, making it essential for proper brain function. Chronic alcoholism can lead to a deficiency in thiamine, resulting in the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While other vitamins such as folate, vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin E have important functions in the body, they are not directly related to the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy or thiamine deficiency.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department with concerns of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department with concerns of pain in his right foot. Upon examination, you observe a slow capillary refill and a cold right foot. The patient is unable to move his toes, and the foot is tender. You can detect a pulse behind his medial malleolus and in his popliteal fossa, but there are no pulses in his foot. Which artery is likely affected in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial

      Correct Answer: Anterior tibial

      Explanation:

      The dorsalis pedis artery in the foot is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery. However, in a patient presenting with acute limb ischemia and an absent dorsalis pedis artery pulse, it is likely that the anterior tibial artery is occluded. This can cause severe ischemia, as evidenced by a cold and tender foot with decreased motor function. The presence of a palpable popliteal pulse suggests that the femoral artery is not occluded. Occlusion of the fibular artery would not typically result in an absent dorsalis pedis pulse, while occlusion of the posterior tibial artery would result in no pulse present posterior to the medial malleolus, where this artery runs.

      The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      164.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized? ...

    Correct

    • In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized?

      Your Answer: Adrenal gland - zona glomerulosa of the cortex

      Explanation:

      Hormones Produced by the Adrenal Glands

      The adrenal glands are responsible for producing various hormones that are essential for the body’s proper functioning. The central core of the adrenal glands is called the medulla, where catecholamines such as adrenaline and noradrenaline are produced. On the other hand, the cortex surrounding the medulla is divided into three layers: zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The zona glomerulosa is responsible for producing aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid hormone that promotes sodium retention and loss of potassium and hydrogen ions. Hyperaldosteronism, or excessive aldosterone production, is associated with hypertension.

      Cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone that is essential for life, is produced in the zona fasciculata. It causes increased blood sugar levels, stabilizes membranes, stimulates appetite, and suppresses the immune/hypersensitivity response. Adrenal androgens, such as DHEA and androstenedione, are produced in the zona reticularis in both males and females. However, their production is low until the adrenarche, which occurs around the time of puberty.

      The renal juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized group of cells in the kidney that secretes renin and regulates the glomerular filtration rate to control sodium excretion. Overall, the adrenal glands play a crucial role in maintaining the body’s homeostasis by producing various hormones that regulate different physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man is intoxicated and falls, resulting in a transected median nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is intoxicated and falls, resulting in a transected median nerve by a shard of glass at the proximal border of the flexor retinaculum. Fortunately, his tendons remain unharmed. Which of the following features is unlikely to be present?

      Your Answer: Loss of power of opponens pollicis

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      If the median nerve is damaged before reaching the flexor retinaculum, it can lead to the loss of certain muscles, including the abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and the first and second lumbricals. When the patient is asked to slowly close their hand, there may be a delay in the movement of the index and middle fingers due to the impaired lumbrical muscle function. However, there are only minor sensory changes and no impact on the dorsal aspect of the thenar eminence. The abductor pollicis longus muscle, which is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve, will still contribute to thumb abduction, but it may be weaker than before the injury.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A newborn is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation. The obstetrician suspects intrauterine growth...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation. The obstetrician suspects intrauterine growth restriction.
      What sign indicates a possible diagnosis of intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer: Birth weight less than three standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age

      Correct Answer: Birth weight less than 10th percentile for gestational age

      Explanation:

      Low Birth Weight and Intrauterine Growth Restriction

      Low birth weight (LBW) and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually have different definitions. LBW refers to a birth weight of less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age. On the other hand, IUGR is a condition where the baby’s weight is not suitable for their gestational age. This can be determined by assessing if the birth weight is less than the 10th or 5th percentile for gestational age, less than 2,500 g and gestational age greater than or equal to 37 weeks, or less than two standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age.

      It is important to note that LBW does not take into account prematurity, while IUGR requires an assessment of the baby’s weight in relation to their gestational age. While many babies with low birth weights can still be healthy, IUGR is considered pathological and can be caused by various factors such as placental diseases, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital infections, maternal substance abuse, and maternal diseases.

      the difference between LBW and IUGR is crucial in identifying potential health risks for newborns. The World Health Organization estimates that 13 million children are born with IUGR every year, highlighting the importance of proper prenatal care and monitoring. By identifying and addressing the underlying causes of IUGR, healthcare providers can help ensure the healthy development of the baby and reduce the risk of complications during and after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. After undergoing emergency surgery, she makes a good recovery in the following weeks. During a routine blood screening, it is discovered that she has a deficiency in vitamin D.

      What is the accurate statement regarding the metabolism of this nutrient?

      Your Answer: Sunlight is necessary for the production of its active form

      Correct Answer: It is converted into its active form in the kidneys

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that calcifediol is converted into calcitriol, the biologically active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. This conversion is necessary to produce active vitamin D.

      Similar to vitamin D produced from UVB exposure to the skin, orally absorbed vitamin D also requires metabolic processes in the liver and kidneys to become active.

      Active vitamin D does not prevent over-absorption of calcium; instead, it increases the absorption of calcium and other minerals.

      UVB radiation on the skin produces an inactive form of vitamin D, which must undergo metabolic processes in the liver and kidneys to be converted into active vitamin D.

      Contrary to popular belief, sunlight is not necessary for the production of active vitamin D because the initial inactive form required to make active vitamin D in the liver and kidneys can be obtained through ingestion.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: Flexor carpi radialis

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (0/2) 0%
General Principles (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/1) 0%
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