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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 48 year old patient presents with subjective symptoms such as fullness of the left ear and tinnitus. He also experiences recurrent vomiting. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Oral chlorpheniramine
Correct Answer: Buccal prochlorperazine
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear. The cause is unknown, however it typically presents with nausea/vomiting, vertigo and ear complaints such as fullness of the ear, deafness and tinnitus. There is no cure for Meniere’s disease but medications, diet, physical therapy and counselling, and some surgical approaches can be used to manage it. Buccal prochlorperazine is used for relieving nausea, vomiting and vertigo attacks associated with Meniere’s disease and other inner ear disorders, such as labyrinthitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presented 10 days post-partum with loss of weight. On history taking, the patient complains of loss of appetite and a lack of sympathy for her child. She is always tired. She even sometimes has violent thoughts about hurting her baby. The treatment of choice for such a case would be?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: ECT
Explanation:This is a case of postpartum psychosis. It can be treated with antidepressants, mood stabilisers or ECT. The treatment of choice is ECT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Breast cyst
Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75 year old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in holding her head up, for the past 6 months. She didn't have any significant joint pain. Her creatinine phosphokinase level was very high and ESR was normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Polymyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels and characteristic electromyography (EMG) and muscle biopsy findings. Weak neck extensors cause difficulty holding the head up. Pain is not a significant symptom, which differentiates it from arthritic conditions. ESR is elevated in only 50% of patients with polymyositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion. Celiac disease is not usually associated with bleeding per rectum and it is associated with a reaction to products containing gliadin. Crohn’s disease and UC are inflammatory bowel diseases and on endoscopy, show many other features of inflammation and not just a single ulcer. A patient with IBS will also have bloating and intermittent diarrhoea with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 54 year old female presents with shortness of breath that has been going on for the last 10 months. Physical examination shows that she has an irregularly irregular pulse and a loud P2 with fixed splitting accompanied by a systolic ejection murmur in the 2nd left intercostal space. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Explanation:Atrial septal defect (ASD) is one of the more commonly recognized congenital cardiac anomalies presenting in adulthood. ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum allowing pulmonary venous return from the left atrium to pass directly to the right atrium. Depending on the size of the defect, size of the shunt, and associated anomalies, this can result in a spectrum of disease ranging from no significant cardiac sequelae to right-sided volume overload, pulmonary arterial hypertension, and even atrial arrhythmias.
With the routine use of echocardiography, the detection and, therefore, the incidence of ASD is increased compared to earlier incidence studies using catheterization, surgery, or autopsy for diagnosis. The subtle physical examination findings and often minimal symptoms during the first 2-3 decades of life contribute to a delay in diagnosis until adulthood, the majority (more than 70%) of which is detected by the fifth decade of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman was admitted with vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:The history of amenorrhoea, pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding with peritonism and cervical excitation is more suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic presentation and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with a fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations including increased abdominal size and persistent bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45 year old known asthmatic was admitted with acute severe asthma and was treated with nebulised salbutamol, ipratropium and bromide, along with 100% oxygen therapy. He was also given IV hydrocortisone, however there was no significant improvement. What would be the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: IV Aminophylline
Explanation:Aminophylline is a very effective bronchodilator. It is short acting and therefore very effective in acute scenarios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male was admitted with a right sided pneumothorax. A chest drain was inserted just below the 4th rib in the mid clavicular line. What is the structure at risk of damage during the above procedure?
Your Answer: Internal thoracic artery
Correct Answer: Intercostal artery
Explanation:From the given answers, the most suitable answer is the intercostal artery. However the most vulnerable structure is the intercostal nerve, then intercostal artery and finally intercostal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Seriously Ill
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Drugs and their actions are listed below. Which pair is correctly matched?
Your Answer: Digoxin stimulates Na/K ATPase
Correct Answer: Simvastatin inhibits HMGCoA reductase
Explanation:Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic agent, and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
Digoxin increases the force of contraction of the heart muscle by inhibiting the Na-K-ATPase membrane pump, resulting in an increase in intracellular sodium.
Sotalol blocks beta-adrenoreceptors (Vaughan Williams Class II) and prolongs the cardiac action potential duration (Vaughan Williams Class III).
Streptokinase creates an active complex which promotes the cleavage of the Arg/Val bond in plasminogen to form the proteolytic enzyme plasmin. Plasmin degrades the fibrin matrix of the thrombus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been diagnosed with eczema and tuberculosis (TB). The following findings were established: pre-broncho-dilator test=2/3.5, post-broncho-dilator=3/3.7. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:The clinical picture of the patient together with paraclinical investigations (spirometry) suggest COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30 year old previously well male was found to have a blood pressure of 140/90mmHg. Investigations revealed microalbuminuria. FBS and HbA1c were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to renal unit
Correct Answer: Renal scan
Explanation:A renal scan is important in the diagnosis of early renal damage, acute or chronic nephropathies and nephrovascular disease. Renal resistive index (RRI) which is measured by Doppler sonography, is proved to be a marker of renal disease onset and progression. Young hypertension with microalbuminuria is an indication for a renal scan to identify the possible aetiology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a six-week history of gradual dysphagia with solids. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Achalasia of the oesophagus
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is the abnormal (metaplastic) change in the mucosal cells lining the lower portion of the oesophagus, from normal stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium with interspersed goblet cells, normally present only in the colon. This change is considered to be premalignant and is associated with a high incidence of transition to oesophageal adenocarcinoma. Clinical features of carcinoma of the oesophagus include: loss of weight, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, and cough. Barium swallow and oesophagoscopy with biopsy should be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old football player has fallen and hit his head on the ground. He did not lose consciousness but has a left side subconjunctival haemorrhage, swelling, and tenderness over his left cheek. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: CT brain
Correct Answer: Facial XR
Explanation:History and examination findings are suggestive of facial injury and intracranial haemorrhage is unlikely. To exclude any facial fracture, an X-ray is suggested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 3 year old child was brought in by her father with complaints of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and low grade fever. She looked slightly dehydrated. According to her parents, the other children in the school also have a similar illness. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?
Your Answer: Rotavirus
Explanation:Rota virus is the leading cause of vital gastroenteritis among children from 6 months to 6 years of age. It is transferred by feco-oral route and it damages the transport mechanism in the intestinal mucosal cells which leads to electrolyte imbalance that’s why the child suffers from dehydration. Treatment of choice is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25 year old youth was brought to the A&E following a stab injury to the right back of the chest. On examination he was dyspnoeic, his trachea was deviated to the left side and there were engorged veins and absent breath sounds on the right side. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:History is suggestive of right sided tension pneumothorax. It can’t be a simple pneumothorax because of tracheal deviation and engorged veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Correct
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A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 59 year old, visibly anxious appearing female presents to the clinic with marked urinary incontinence. Urine culture comes out to be sterile and the urodynamic study is normal. Which of the following would be the next step in the management of this case?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor exercise
Explanation:Urinary incontinence is a common condition characterized by uncontrollable leakage of urine. Causes and presentation are variable.
Stress incontinence, urge incontinence, and mixed incontinence are the most frequent forms. The condition is twice as common in women as men.
Diagnosis involves a detailed medical history, a voiding diary, physical examination, and diagnostic testing such as measurement of the bladder pressure (urodynamic examination).
Treatment is determined based on the type of incontinence and its aetiology, and usually involves measures such as pelvic floor physiotherapy, anti-incontinence devices, anticholinergics, or collecting devices. The prognosis in adequately treated cases is usually excellent, but, if left untreated, constant contact with leaked urine can cause urinary tract infections, dermatitis, and psychological distress. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following bronchodilators is an anticholinergic commonly used in addition to adrenoceptor stimulants?
Your Answer: Fluticasone propionate
Correct Answer: Oxitropium bromide
Explanation:All of these drugs are anti-asthmatic drugs that work through different pathways. Oxitropium bromide is an anticholinergic drug that is often used with beta agonists to improve their action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A female patient presents with pain upon inspiration and dyspnoea. She had a myocardial infarction four days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Although viral infection is the most common identifiable cause of acute pericarditis, the condition may be associated with many diseases. Non-viral causes of pericarditis include bacterial infection, MI, chest trauma, and neoplasm. Post–MI pericarditis may develop two to four days after an acute infarction and results from a reaction between the pericardium and the damaged adjacent myocardium. Dressler’s syndrome is a post–MI phenomenon in which pericarditis develops weeks to months after an acute infarction; this syndrome is thought to reflect a late autoimmune reaction mediated by antibodies to circulating myocardial antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the sign of life threatening asthma?
Your Answer: Deteriorating level of consciousness
Explanation:A drop in level of consciousness is an indicator of high levels of PCO2 and cerebral cortex depression. It is a life threatening condition that requires intervention which may include mechanical ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female was admitted following the ingestion of 36 paracetamol tablets. On examination she was confused and disoriented. Investigations after 24 hrs showed a normal FBC, pH - 7.2, serum creatinine - 3.7mg/dl and INR 6.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for her?
Your Answer: Give N-Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:Confusion and disorientation indicate that the patient has grade 3 hepatic encephalopathy. According to King’s College criteria for liver transplantation low pH (< 7.3), features of acute kidney injury (creatinine > 3.4 mg/dL), grade 3-4 hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy (INR >6.5 ) are positive criteria for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Seriously Ill
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35 year old alcoholic presented with epigastric pain radiating backward. His pain was relieved with opioid analgesics and anti PUD medications, however after 1 week he developed a fever with a similar kind of abdominal pain to that of his initial presentation. US abdomen shows a fluid collection. The most likely site for the fluid collection would be?
Your Answer: Sub phrenic
Correct Answer: Lesser sac
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis in this case is acute pancreatitis, which typically presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting, along with deranged LFTs and raised serum amylase. It makes a boundary wall for the lesser sac and therefore the most likely site of fluid collection would be in the lesser sac.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male has presented with a wrist drop of his right hand. After a medical examination, an area of sensory loss on the dorsum is revealed. Choose the nerve most likely to be affected from the list of options.
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies the following: brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, and the extensor muscles of the forearm (which is via the posterior interosseous nerve). The sensory branches supply the following: dorsum of the thumb, dorsum of the fingers up to the PIPJ (proximal interphalangeal joint), and the middle of the ring finger. The loss of muscle power depends on the extent of the nerve damage – the usual posture is a wrist drop, coupled with thumb adduction and hand pronation. Sensation in this male patient is impaired in this area. The thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, and thus, damage causes winging of the scapula. A median nerve palsy causes the following: the inability to abduct and oppose the thumb; weakness in the forearm, pronation and finger flexion; and sensory loss of the thumb. A T1 nerve root lesion causes Klimke’s palsy – this is a loss of finger flexion, abduction and adduction, and reduced sensation in the medial upper limb. The ulnar nerve is usually compromised at the elbow which causes numbness in the 5th finger, the medial aspect of the ring finger, and the dorsum of the hand (over the 5th finger). A clawed hand can develop (the little and ring fingers curl in towards the palm) if the weakness of the small muscles of the hand is allowed to progress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A smoker male presenting with weight loss is found to have a normal chest x-ray but a positive sputum cytology for carcinomatous cells. Which of the following would be the likely TNM classification?
Your Answer: T3, N2, M0
Correct Answer: TX, N0, M0
Explanation:The TNM system is a means to describe the amount and spread of cancer in a patient’s body. T describes the size of the tumour and any spread of cancer into nearby tissue; N describes spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes; and M describes metastasis (spread of cancer to other parts of the body).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 69 year old female presents to the clinic with complaint of vaginal bleeding that has been present for 3 months. Pipelle endometrial sampling and curettage reveals adenocarcinoma. Which of the following treatment options would be the most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Subtotal hysterectomy
Correct Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is the most common cancer of the female genital tract in the US, with a peak incidence between 60 and 70 years of age. Endometrial cancers can be divided into two types based on histological characteristic; type I cancers account for 75% of all endometrial cancers and are of endometrioid origin, while type II cancers originate from serous or clear cells.
Several risk factors are associated with the development of endometrial cancer, of which the most important is long-term exposure to increased oestrogen levels, especially in type I cancer. The main symptom is often painless, vaginal bleeding, which presents at an early stage. Later stages may manifest with pelvic pain and a palpable mass, whereby pelvic exams are often normal.
The diagnosis is made primarily via an endometrial biopsy, which shows endometrial hyperplasia and atypical cells. Additional imaging studies (e.g., ultrasonography, abdominal CT, X-ray) are usually required for the detection and staging of metastases. Treatment of early stage endometrial cancer involves hysterectomy with adnexectomy and may also require additional lymph node removal. Radical hysterectomy according to the Wertheim-Meigs method is performed in cases of advanced carcinomas and can be combined with radiotherapy and progestin treatment. The prognosis is usually favourable in cancers diagnosed at an early stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old female complains of coarse tremors. Which of the following drugs may be the cause?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The most common adverse effect of lithium is fine hand tremors. It is also an early sign of toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 41 year old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been smoking for 25 years and has a past history of regular cannabis use. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell laryngeal cancer
Explanation:Progressive hoarseness of the voice is a very typical and early finding in people suspected to have squamous cell laryngeal cancer. Due to mechanical compression, patients might experience dysphagia as well as pain. The ‘lump in the throat sensation is not uncommon too. Haemoptysis might be present, together with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea. Other symptoms consist of constitutional complaints, such as weight loss or fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
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Question 30
Correct
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A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history of sarcoidosis. What is the most probable cause for renal stones?
Your Answer: Hyper calcaemic
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
