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Question 1
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma call is made, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully secure intravenous access and decide to set up for intraosseous access instead.
Which of the following anatomical locations would be the LEAST suitable for insertion in this case?Your Answer: Lateral malleolus
Explanation:Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.
Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.
There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman was in a car crash where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She has bruising on her front chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. The chest X-ray taken in the emergency room shows signs of a traumatic aortic injury.
Which of the following chest X-ray findings is most indicative of this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of a pleural cap
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old individual is brought to the emergency room after a car accident. They present with a fracture in the middle of their left femur and complain of abdominal pain. The patient appears restless. The following are their vital signs:
Blood pressure: 112/94 mmHg
Pulse rate: 102 bpm
Respiration rate: 21 rpm
SpO2: 97% on room air
Temperature: 36 ºC
Considering the possibility of significant blood loss, what grade of hypovolemic shock would you assign to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 2
Explanation:Grade 2 shock is characterized by a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. These clinical features align with the symptoms of grade 2 hypovolemic shock, as indicated in the below notes.
Further Reading:
Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.
One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.
Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.
Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.
In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110, blood pressure 102/63, oxygen saturation 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest, reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left side of his chest. He is receiving high-flow oxygen and a blood transfusion of his specific blood type has been initiated.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest drain insertion
Explanation:A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.
If 1500 mL of blood is immediately drained or if the rate of ongoing blood loss exceeds 200 mL per hour for 2-4 hours, early thoracotomy should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her blood pressure is unstable, and the hospital has initiated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to administer tranexamic acid as well.
What is the recommended time frame for administering tranexamic acid in a trauma situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Within 3 hours
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements regarding needle cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cricothyroid membrane is located directly below the cricoid cartilage
Explanation:A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.
To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.
The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.
Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained a fracture to the left calcaneus. Which of the following injuries is frequently associated with calcaneal fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertebral fracture
Explanation:When patients have calcaneal fractures, it is important to evaluate them for any additional injuries that may be present. These can include vertebral fractures, fractures in the opposite calcaneus, and injuries to the cuboid bone.
Further Reading:
Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open
Explanation:Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.
Further Reading:
An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.
To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.
Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.
Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal humerus
Explanation:Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.
Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.
There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being kicked by a horse multiple times. The patient had recently started work cleaning stables and was kicked several times whilst behind one of the horses. The patients observations are shown below:
Parameter Result
Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
Pulse rate 124 bpm
Respiration rate 30 rpm
SpO2 95% on air
On examination there is significant bruising to the right anterolateral aspect of the chest wall, the patient is clammy, there is reduced air entry with dull percussion to the right lung base and the trachea is central. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Massive haemothorax
Explanation:Massive haemothorax is characterized by the presence of more than 1.5 litres of blood in the pleural space. The patient’s history and examination findings are indicative of haemothorax. When blood loss exceeds 1500ml, it is classified as grade 3 hypovolemic shock, which is considered severe. Symptoms such as a pulse rate over 120, respiration rate over 30, and low blood pressure align with grade 3 shock and are consistent with massive haemothorax. In the case of pneumothorax, percussion reveals a resonant or hyper-resonant sound. Chylothorax, on the other hand, is a rare condition that typically occurs due to injury to the thoracic duct.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to the right forearm. The patient explains that he was smoking a cigarette while driving back from work when the cigarette accidentally fell onto his arm, igniting his sleeve which might have been soaked in gasoline from work. You observe circumferential burns encompassing the entire right forearm. What would be your primary concern regarding potential complications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome
Explanation:Compartment syndrome can occur when there are circumferential burns on the arms or legs. This typically happens with full thickness burns, where the burnt skin becomes stiff and compresses the compartment, making it difficult for blood to flow out. To treat this condition, escharotomy and possibly fasciotomy may be necessary.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car accident. You evaluate the patient's risk of cervical spine injury using the Canadian C-spine rule. What is included in the assessment for the Canadian C-spine rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask patient to rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right
Explanation:The Canadian C-spine assessment includes evaluating for tenderness along the midline of the spine, checking for any abnormal sensations in the limbs, and assessing the ability to rotate the neck 45 degrees to the left and right. While a significant portion of the assessment relies on gathering information from the patient’s history, there are also physical examination components involved. These include testing for tenderness along the midline of the cervical spine, asking the patient to perform neck rotations, ensuring they are comfortable in a sitting position, and assessing for any sensory deficits in the limbs. It is important to note that any reported paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs can also be taken into consideration during the assessment.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has attempted to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements regarding surgical cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the surgical airway of choice in patients under the age of 12
Explanation:A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.
There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography
Explanation:CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought into the emergency department by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the patient may have an obstructed airway.
Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burn patients is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High tidal volumes should be used in intubated patients
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring. He has been in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. Upon assessing his airway, you have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to proceed with intubation and begin preparing the required equipment.
What is one reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness of voice
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.
In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.
The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.
Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a car accident. After conducting a clinical examination and identifying a low-risk factor for cervical spine injury, you decide to order imaging for this patient. What type of imaging would you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT cervical spine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, when it comes to imaging for cervical spine injury, CT is recommended as the primary modality for adults aged 16 and above, while MRI is recommended for children. This applies to patients who are either at high risk for cervical spine injury or are unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You examine his airway and have concerns about the potential for airway blockage.
Which of the following is NOT a notable factor that increases the risk of airway obstruction in a patient with significant burns?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin level of 8%
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a patient who has suffered burns. Airway blockage can occur rapidly due to direct injury, such as inhalation injury, or as a result of swelling caused by the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated and treated while maintaining control of the cervical spine.
Signs of airway obstruction may not be immediately apparent, as swelling typically does not occur right away. Children with thermal burns are at a higher risk of airway obstruction compared to adults due to their smaller airway size, so they require careful observation.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, the presence of soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, or neck, burns inside the mouth, a large burn area with increasing depth, and associated trauma. A carboxyhemoglobin level above 10% is also suggestive of an inhalation injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 47 year old male visits the emergency department after injuring his knee. The patient explains that he extended his leg after tripping on a flight of stairs, but experienced intense pain around the knee when he landed on his foot. Walking has become challenging for the patient. The patient experiences tenderness above the patella and upon examination, the patella appears to be positioned lower than normal. An X-ray of the knee is requested. What is used to evaluate the accurate placement (height) of the patella on the X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insall-Salvati ratio
Explanation:The Insall-Salvati ratio is determined by dividing the length of the patellar tendon (TL) by the length of the patella (PL). This ratio is used to compare the relative lengths of these two structures. A normal ratio is typically 1:1.
Further Reading:
A quadriceps tendon tear or rupture is a traumatic lower limb and joint injury that occurs when there is heavy loading on the leg, causing forced contraction of the quadriceps while the foot is planted and the knee is partially bent. These tears most commonly happen at the osteotendinous junction between the tendon and the superior pole of the patella. Quadriceps tendon ruptures are more common than patellar tendon ruptures.
When a quadriceps tendon tear occurs, the patient usually experiences a tearing sensation and immediate pain. They will then typically complain of pain around the knee and over the tendon. Clinically, there will often be a knee effusion and weakness or inability to actively extend the knee.
In cases of complete quadriceps tears, the patella will be displaced distally, resulting in a low lying patella or patella infera, also known as patella baja. Radiological measurements, such as the Insall-Salvati ratio, can be used to measure patella height. The Insall-Salvati ratio is calculated by dividing the patellar tendon length by the patellar length. A normal ratio is between 0.8 to 1.2, while a low lying patella (patella baja) is less than 0.8 and a high lying patella (patella alta) is greater than 1.2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns to the chest after sparks from the welding machine ignited some gasoline-soaked rags that were nearby on the ground, causing his T-shirt to catch fire. Upon examination, the patient presents with full thickness burns encircling the chest. What would be the primary complication you would be most worried about in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired ventilation
Explanation:Circumferential burns on the thorax can limit the expansion of the chest and hinder proper ventilation. When burns penetrate deeply, they can cause the formation of dead tissue called eschar, which is usually white or black in color. This eschar is contracted and inflexible compared to healthy tissue, leading to restricted movement and impaired breathing. In some cases, burns on the thorax can result in respiratory failure. Marjolin’s ulcer, a rare condition, refers to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in burnt or scarred tissue. Burn injuries often lead to the release of excess potassium into the bloodstream, which can cause hyperkalemia. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs when someone inhales CO over a prolonged period, usually due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. However, the history provided in this case does not align with prolonged exposure to carbon monoxide.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his right ankle while playing basketball. He reports pain on the outer side of his ankle and foot, and experiences discomfort when putting weight on it.
After conducting a physical examination, the healthcare provider decides to order ankle and foot X-rays based on the Ottawa foot & ankle rules. According to these guidelines, which of the following scenarios would warrant a foot X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenderness over navicular
Explanation:An X-ray of the foot is recommended when there is pain in the base of the fifth metatarsal or the navicular bone, as well as an inability to bear weight immediately after an injury or in the emergency department. The Ottawa ankle rules can also be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary for ankle injuries. These rules focus on two specific areas (the malleolar and midfoot zones) to determine if an X-ray of the ankle or foot is needed. More information on these rules can be found in the notes below.
Further Reading:
Ankle fractures are traumatic lower limb and joint injuries that involve the articulation between the tibia, fibula, and talus bones. The ankle joint allows for plantar and dorsiflexion of the foot. The key bony prominences of the ankle are called malleoli, with the medial and posterior malleolus being prominences of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus being a prominence of the distal fibula. The distal fibula and tibia are joined together by the distal tibiofibular joint or syndesmosis, which is comprised of three key ligaments. An ankle X-ray series is often used to guide clinical decision making in patients with ankle injuries, using the Ottawa ankle rules to determine if an X-ray is necessary. Ankle fractures are commonly described by the anatomical fracture pattern seen on X-ray relative to the malleoli involved, such as isolated malleolus fractures, bimalleolar fractures, and trimalleolar fractures. The Weber classification is a commonly used system for distal fibula fractures, categorizing them as Weber A, B, or C based on the level and extent of the fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements about needle cricothyroidotomy is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Evidence of local infection is a valid contraindication
Explanation:A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.
To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.
The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.
Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a bar. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the presence of free fluid in the chest cavity.
Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:Stab wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma due to stab wounds, the organs that are most commonly affected include the liver (40% of cases), small bowel (30% of cases), diaphragm (20% of cases), and colon (15% of cases). These statistics are derived from the latest edition of the ATLS manual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual is brought into the emergency department following a head injury from a ladder fall. The patient's condition worsens. You proceed to re-evaluate the patient's GCS. At what GCS range is intubation recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 or less
Explanation:Intubation is necessary for patients with a compromised airway. In comatose patients, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8 or less indicates the need for intubation. According to NICE guidelines, immediate intubation and ventilation are advised in cases of coma where the patient is not responsive to commands, not speaking, and not opening their eyes. Other indications for intubation include the loss of protective laryngeal reflexes, ventilatory insufficiency as indicated by abnormal blood gases, spontaneous hyperventilation, irregular respirations, significantly deteriorating conscious level, unstable fractures of the facial skeleton, copious bleeding into the mouth, and seizures. In certain cases, intubation and ventilation should be performed before the patient begins their journey.
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman that has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class II haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class II haemorrhage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate of 110 bpm
Explanation:Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.
The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department with chest injuries after a canister was thrown into a fire and the explosive projectile struck the patient's chest wall. On examination, there is asymmetry of the chest. You observe that the chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during expiration.
What is the term for this clinical sign?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paradoxical breathing
Explanation:The patient in this scenario is exhibiting a clinical sign known as paradoxical breathing. This is characterized by an abnormal movement of the chest wall during respiration. Normally, the chest expands during inhalation and contracts during exhalation. However, in paradoxical breathing, the opposite occurs. The chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation. This can be seen in cases of chest trauma or injury, where there is a disruption in the normal mechanics of breathing.
Further Reading:
Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.
The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.
In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.
Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her vehicle was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway blockage. Her cervical spine is immobilized in three places.
Which two fundamental airway techniques are recommended by ATLS guidelines to clear the airway in trauma patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chin-lift and jaw-thrust manoeuvres
Explanation:The most recent ATLS guidelines recommend using either the jaw-thrust or chin-lift techniques as the initial approach to open the airway in trauma patients. It is important to avoid moving the head and neck in patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. However, if the patient is unconscious and does not have a gag reflex, temporarily placing an oropharyngeal airway can be beneficial.
To perform the chin-lift technique, gently place your fingers under the mandible and lift it upwards to bring the chin forward. Use your thumb to slightly depress the lower lip and open the mouth. Alternatively, you can place your thumb behind the lower incisors while gently lifting the chin. It is crucial not to hyperextend the neck during the chin-lift technique.
For the jaw thrust technique, place one hand on each side of the mandible and push it forward. This can be done in conjunction with a bag-mask device to achieve a good seal and provide adequate ventilation. Just like with the chin-lift technique, be cautious not to extend the patient’s neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether they should request a CT head scan for their patient. Which of the following is NOT among the clinical criteria for an urgent CT head scan in an elderly individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 episode of vomiting
Explanation:If an adult with a head injury experiences more than one episode of vomiting, it is recommended to undergo a CT scan of the head. There are several criteria for an urgent CT scan in individuals with a head injury, including a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, and being on anticoagulation medication. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation medication who should undergo a CT scan within 8 hours if none of the other signs are present. However, if a patient on anticoagulation medication has any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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