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Question 1
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A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
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A 58-year-old female patient with chronic rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP complaining of symptoms related to keratoconjunctivitis sicca. What is a straightforward test that can be performed to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schirmer's test
Explanation:Secondary Sjögren’s Syndrome in Rheumatological Patients
It is not uncommon for patients with rheumatological disease to develop secondary Sjögren’s syndrome, which is also known as keratoconjunctivitis sicca. This condition is characterized by a reduction in secretions, particularly in the salivary and lacrimal glands. One of the diagnostic tests used to identify this condition is the Schirmer’s test. This test is a simple procedure that measures the production of tears in the eyes. During the test, a strip of paper is placed under the eyelid of the patient, and after five minutes, the amount of moistness on the paper is measured. If the moistness is less than 5 mm, it is suggestive of Sjögren’s syndrome.
Overall, secondary Sjögren’s syndrome is a common condition that can occur in patients with rheumatological disease. The Schirmer’s test is a simple and effective way to diagnose this condition, and it can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
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A 57-year-old female patient complains of morning stiffness, persistent low grade fever, and symmetrical joint pain for several months. During examination, you observe that the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints are affected with four nodules on the digits of her hand. The inflamed joints lead you to suspect a polyarthropathy disease.
What is the most specific serological marker for rheumatoid arthritis?Your Answer: Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
Explanation:Serological Markers for Autoimmune Diseases
Rheumatoid factor is present in a majority of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not specific to the disease. On the other hand, anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis, with a specificity of 98%. Anti-Jo antibodies are found in patients with dermatomyositis, while anti-Ro antibodies are associated with Sjögren’s syndrome. Lastly, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are found in patients with primary biliary cirrhosis. These serological markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases. It is important to note that while these markers can be helpful, they should not be used in isolation and should always be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
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A 70-year-old male complains of increasing pain and swelling in his left knee over the past three days. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and lisinopril. Upon examination, his left knee is swollen, red, and tender, and he experiences limited mobility due to the pain. What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Monoarthropathy
Monoarthropathy can have various causes, and one of the possibilities is septic arthritis. To rule out this condition, joint aspiration is necessary, and the sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to detect the presence of crystals and organisms. Polymorphs and organisms are expected in septic arthritis, while negatively birefringent crystals are typical for gout, and positively birefringent crystals are seen in pseudogout. FBC and ESR are not useful for diagnosis, and although an x-ray may show osteoarthritis changes, it is not the primary investigation.
Bendroflumethiazide can increase urate levels and trigger acute gout, but urate concentrations may remain normal during an acute gout attack. Therefore, it is essential to consider all possible causes of monoarthropathy and perform the appropriate tests to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematous eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HLA B-27
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A couple in their mid-40s with no known genetic disorders in their family have a baby boy who exhibits asymmetrical growth. The child's head and torso are proportionate, but his arms and legs are significantly shorter than average, and his fingers are all the same length. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: X linked recessive
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Achondroplasia: A Congenital Condition Causing Impaired Bone Growth
Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that affects bone growth, resulting in short arms and legs, fingers and toes of equal length, increased lumbar lordosis, and normal intellect and life expectancy. Although it is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases occur without a family history. The underlying defect is a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), which is responsible for membranous bone growth. However, 80% of all cases are sporadic mutations, with the most common cause being a de novo mutation. The risk of a de novo mutation is increased due to the age of the father.
Increased paternal age promotes single gene mutations, while increased maternal age promotes non-dysjunction and chromosomal abnormalities. Despite the impaired bone growth, affected patients have normal-sized heads and trunks due to normal membranous bone growth. Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that can be diagnosed through genetic testing and managed through various treatments, including limb-lengthening surgeries and physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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An 8-year-old girl comes to the doctor complaining of leg pains. She cries at night and her mother has to massage the painful areas to soothe her. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic pains
Explanation:Idiopathic Limb Pains in Children
Idiopathic limb pains, also known as growing pains, are a common occurrence in children between the ages of 3 and 9. These pains typically occur in the lower limbs and can be quickly settled with comforting. It is important to note that these pains are not associated with any abnormalities found during examination and the child should be growing normally.
However, it is important to distinguish idiopathic limb pains from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, for example, may cause limb pain due to bone marrow infiltration. Children with this condition may also exhibit signs of bone marrow failure and be systemically unwell.
Langerhans histiocytosis is another condition that can cause painful bone lesions. This proliferative disorder of antigen presenting cells may be localised or systemic and can be difficult to diagnose. The systemic form of the condition may also present with a widespread eczematous rash and fevers.
Non-accidental injury may also present with recurrent pains, but evidence of an injury would be expected. Primary bone malignancy is more common in teenage years and typically presents with unremitting pain, growth failure, weight loss, or pathological fractures.
In summary, while idiopathic limb pains are relatively easy to settle and associated with a normal examination, it is important to consider other potential conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and feet for the past month, which is worse in the morning. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, there is some mild swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands, metacarpo-phalangeal joints, and wrist. No other abnormalities are detected. What would be the most suitable investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Rheumatoid Factor and Diagnostic Markers for Rheumatoid Arthritis
The clinical scenario presented is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, with a positive rheumatoid factor found in approximately 70% of cases. This factor is an IgM antibody directed against IgG, and while false positives can occur, its presence is highly supportive of the diagnosis and carries prognostic significance. In addition to rheumatoid factor, non-specific markers of inflammation such as erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP) are expected to be elevated in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Proper interpretation and utilization of these markers can lead to earlier diagnosis and better outcomes for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What type of juvenile arthritis is most frequently seen?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor positive oligoarthritis
Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody positive oligoarthritis
Explanation:Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) and its Characteristics
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is a condition characterized by persistent joint swelling in children under 16 years of age without any known cause. It is not the same as rheumatoid arthritis, as only 5% of JIA cases are rheumatoid factor positive polyarthritis. Instead, 60% of JIA cases are ANA+ oligoarthritis. Children with JIA may also experience systemic symptoms, such as chronic anterior uveitis, which requires regular screening. Chronic inflammation can lead to secondary amyloidosis, while poor growth, anorexia, and anaemia are common due to chronic disease and steroid therapy.
Overall, JIA is a complex condition that can have a significant impact on a child’s health and wellbeing. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the various characteristics of JIA and to provide appropriate care and support to affected children and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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