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  • Question 1 - An 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and previous myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • An 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain for the past two months. The pain is dull and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is found in the central abdomen. The patient had a previous US abdomen six months ago, which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the US abdomen and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's US report, which shows no focal pancreatic, liver, or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.4 cm, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys. What aspect of the patient's history indicates that surgery may be necessary?

      Your Answer: Velocity of increase of abdominal aortic diameter

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. To be classified as high rupture risk, the abdominal aortic diameter must exceed 5.5 cm, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA is only considered high-risk due to velocity of growth if it increases by more than 1 cm per year, which equates to a velocity of growth of 0.3 cm over 6 months or 0.6cm over 1 year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints of abdominal pain and vomiting. She underwent a gallstone removal procedure earlier in the day. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 102 beats/min, blood pressure of 132/92 mmHg, temperature of 38.6ÂșC, oxygen saturation of 99% in room air, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Blood tests are ordered and a CT scan of the abdomen is requested. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which is indicated by the patient’s symptoms. These may include abdominal pain that spreads to the back, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia caused by pain, and fever. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count, lipase, and CT abdomen should be ordered.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of urological symptoms. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of urological symptoms. He reports frequent nighttime urination, urgency, difficulty initiating urination, and a weak stream. During a digital rectal exam, the doctor notes a smooth but enlarged prostate and orders a blood test to check PSA levels. To alleviate his symptoms, the doctor prescribes tamsulosin.

      What is the mechanism of action of tamsulosin?

      Your Answer: α-2 antagonist

      Correct Answer: α-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      The relaxation of smooth muscle is promoted by alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old male who is 84kg is on the general surgical ward following...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male who is 84kg is on the general surgical ward following an open right hemicolectomy with primary anastomosis and a covering loop ileostomy two days ago. The operation went well, but he has been struggling with pain and nausea postoperatively, and as a result has been unable to tolerate oral intake. He has been given 1 litre of Hartmann's solution and 2 litres of 5% dextrose solution maintenance fluid per day, as well as regular morphine IV and ondansetron IV twice daily. He also takes regular furosemide for blood pressure.

      The nurse has called you to review him as he has become confused this morning, and his blood pressure has fallen.

      On examination, he appears well, although confused, with an abbreviated mental test (AMT) score of 7/10. His surgical site is healing well, although he complains of some tenderness on palpation, and bowel sounds are absent. His stoma bag has a small amount of bilious content. Fluid balance is neutral, and mucous membranes are moist. Examination is otherwise normal.

      Observations are below:

      BP 104/74 mmHg
      HR 93/min
      RR 14/min
      O2 Sats 99%
      Temperature 37.4ÂșC

      His blood results from this morning are below:

      Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 269 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 123 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 8.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 101 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 3.2 mg/L <5

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's confusion?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management

      Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.

      Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.

      The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.

      In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - What is a characteristic of a trident hand? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of a trident hand?

      Your Answer: None

      Correct Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia: A Genetic Disorder

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, in about 90% of cases, it occurs as a result of a new spontaneous mutation in the genetic material. This disorder is characterized by several physical features, including an unusually large head with a prominent forehead and a flat nasal bridge. Additionally, individuals with achondroplasia have short upper arms and legs, which is known as rhizomelic dwarfism. They also have an unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks, as well as short hands with fingers that assume a trident or three-pronged position during extension.

      To summarize, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects physical development. It is caused by a spontaneous mutation in the genetic material and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The physical features of this disorder include a large head, short limbs, and a unique hand position. this disorder is important for individuals and families affected by it, as well as for healthcare professionals who may provide care for those with achondroplasia.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe headache he has ever experienced. He explains that he was sitting with his wife when he suddenly felt excruciating pain at the back of his head. The pain quickly escalated to a 10/10 intensity, and he also feels nauseous, although he has not vomited yet.

      The patient has a medical history of adult dominant polycystic kidney disease and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. Upon examination, his Glasgow coma scale is 15/15, and there is no focal neurology.

      Due to concerns of an intracranial bleed, a non-contrast CT head is requested, which reveals hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space and ventricles. What is the most appropriate definitive intervention for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: External ventricular drain

      Correct Answer: Aneurysm coiling

      Explanation:

      After experiencing a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache, a subarachnoid haemorrhage was diagnosed through CT scans that revealed fresh blood in the subarachnoid space. Given the patient’s history of ADPKD, which is associated with Berry aneurysms, it is likely that the haemorrhage was caused by an aneurysm. The most appropriate treatment for such an aneurysm is now considered to be coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is a preferred method over neurosurgical procedures such as aneurysm clipping or haematoma evacuation via craniotomy, which are reserved for specific cases. Thrombectomy, on the other hand, is used to manage acute ischaemic stroke, while external ventricular drains are used to treat complications such as hydrocephalus and are not directly related to treating the aneurysm itself.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - What are the defining features of Gardner's syndrome, a genetic condition affecting the...

    Correct

    • What are the defining features of Gardner's syndrome, a genetic condition affecting the colon?

      Your Answer: Colonic polyposis, osteomas and fibrous skin tumours

      Explanation:

      Gardner’s Syndrome

      Gardner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited dominantly. It is characterized by the presence of multiple osteomas, cutaneous and soft tissue tumors, and polyposis coli. In addition to these common features, some individuals with Gardner’s syndrome may also experience hypertrophy of the pigment layer of the retina, thyroid tumors, and liver tumors.

      The osteomas associated with Gardner’s syndrome are typically found in the bones of the skull. However, they can also affect the long bones, causing cortical thickening of their ends and sometimes resulting in deformities and shortening. While Gardner’s syndrome is a rare condition, it is important for individuals with a family history of the disorder to be aware of its symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect they may be affected.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in his left leg. The pain has been constant for the past 2 hours. He has been experiencing calf pain when walking for the past few months, which improves with rest. He has no significant medical history and is asymptomatic otherwise.

      Upon examination, his left leg appears pale and cool. The anterior tibialis pulse on the left cannot be palpated, but the popliteal pulse is normal. Both pulses on his right leg are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate anticoagulation

      Correct Answer: Doppler examination of pulses

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with acute limb pain and a history of intermittent claudication, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be performed to confirm suspected acute limb ischaemia. This is because manual palpation of pulses can be operator-dependent and the Doppler examination can quickly and easily quantify the extent of the loss. Other symptoms of acute limb ischaemia include pallor, loss of distal pulse, and feeling of coldness.

      Compartment pressure monitoring can aid in the diagnosis of compartment syndrome, which presents with pain and possibly pallor in the lower leg, but not cold temperature. However, compartment syndrome is usually diagnosed clinically, and compartment pressure monitoring is only used in cases of diagnostic uncertainty.

      Compression ultrasonography is useful when a deep vein thrombosis is suspected, which presents with swelling, redness, and a hot leg – the opposite of the symptoms described in acute limb ischaemia. It also does not affect the pulses or explain the intermittent claudication.

      Immediate anticoagulation is not appropriate before further investigations and confirmation of diagnosis by a specialist. While anticoagulation is used in the treatment of acute limb ischaemia, it is important to have a more detailed assessment before initiating treatment.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman delivered a baby 10 days ago. She has visited the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman delivered a baby 10 days ago. She has visited the GP complaining of right breast pain for the past 48 hours. On examination, there is a tender, warm, and swollen area that appears red. She has also noticed a decrease in milk production. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin and ultrasound guided aspiration

      Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding normally

      Explanation:

      When a lactating woman’s breast becomes painful, tender, and erythematosus, it is likely that she is suffering from lactational mastitis. This condition is quite common, affecting 1 in 10 lactating women. The first step in managing uncomplicated mastitis is to continue breastfeeding normally. Stopping expression can worsen milk stasis and increase the risk of developing an abscess. If the pain is too severe, the patient can arrange a specialist appointment through their general practitioner.

      If the patient is systemically unwell, has nipple fissures, or does not experience symptom improvement after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, flucloxacillin is prescribed for 10-14 days. This antibiotic is the preferred choice because Staphylococcus aureus is the most common pathogen causing mastitis.

      In cases where an abscess is present, flucloxacillin and ultrasound-guided aspiration are used. Abscesses are a common complication of mastitis and present as a tender fluctuant mass on examination.

      Interrupting breastfeeding is not recommended as it can increase milk stasis. If there is concern that the symptoms may be a presentation of Paget’s disease of the nipple, a referral for a triple assessment is necessary. However, given the patient’s lactation history, the diagnosis is more likely to be mastitis. Additionally, Paget’s disease is often painless and eczematous in appearance.

      Understanding Mastitis: Inflammation of the Breast Tissue

      Mastitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the breast tissue, which is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects around 1 in 10 women and is characterized by a painful, tender, and red hot breast. Other symptoms may include fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, as simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can help alleviate the symptoms. However, if the patient is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The first-line antibiotic for mastitis is oral flucloxacillin, which should be taken for 10-14 days. This reflects the fact that the most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus.

      It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment. If left untreated, mastitis may develop into a breast abscess, which generally requires incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. Understanding mastitis and its management can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon examination, there is a weeping, crusting lesion on the left nipple, but the areolar region is unaffected. No palpable mass is found in the breast, but there is a palpable lymph node in the axillary region. The patient's doctor attempted to treat the lesion with 1% hydrocortisone cream, but it was unsuccessful. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pagets disease of the nipple

      Explanation:

      This type of lesion, which appears crusty and causes tears, is typically associated with Paget’s disease of the nipple. It is worth noting that the areolar region is usually unaffected. While there may not be a palpable mass, some patients may still have an invasive cancer underlying the lesion, which can lead to lymphadenopathy.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with burns to her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with burns to her face, neck, right arm, and upper chest after a vaping device exploded. She has burns covering 15% of her body and weighs 55kg. Using the Parkland formula provided, calculate the amount of fluid replacement she will receive after 12 hours.

      Your Answer: 2000ml

      Explanation:

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that spreads to the right side. During examination, his sclera appear yellow, and he experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen with localized guarding. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 95/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, saturation 99% on 2L, temperature 39.5ÂșC, and Glasgow coma score 14/15 (confused speech). Which of the following diagnoses could account for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s cholangitis triad consists of three symptoms: fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Meanwhile, Reynolds Pentad, which includes jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever/rigors, shock, and altered mental status, is linked to ascending cholangitis. Before conducting further investigations on the biliary tree, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography for common bile duct stones, or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, the patient must first receive adequate resuscitation.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old woman complains of a painful lump in her left breast. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman complains of a painful lump in her left breast. She has been breastfeeding her baby for two weeks without any issues until four days ago when she noticed the swelling. Upon examination, there is a warm, tender, erythematosus, and fluctuant mass in her left breast. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duct ectasia

      Correct Answer: Abscess

      Explanation:

      Lactational Breast Abscesses: Causes and Treatment

      Lactational breast abscesses are a common occurrence during the first month of breastfeeding. These abscesses are typically caused by staphylococcal bacteria and can be treated with antibiotics and aspiration under ultrasound control. In some cases, multiple aspirations may be necessary to fully resolve the abscess. However, if the abscess does not respond to treatment or recurs, formal incision and drainage may be required. It is important for new mothers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of lactational breast abscesses, such as breast pain, redness, and swelling, and to seek medical attention promptly if they suspect an abscess. With proper treatment, lactational breast abscesses can be effectively managed, allowing mothers to continue breastfeeding their infants without interruption.

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  • Question 14 - A 24-year-old man presents with a sudden occipital headache, which he initially thought...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man presents with a sudden occipital headache, which he initially thought was a migraine. He delayed seeking medical attention and is now admitted to the hospital. On examination, he has a GCS of 15/15 and a normal neurological examination, but neck stiffness is noted. He has no fever and no rash is observed. A CT scan performed 6 hours after symptom onset is unremarkable. When should a lumbar puncture be performed?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: 12 hours post-onset of headache

      Explanation:

      LP for detecting subarachnoid haemorrhage should be done after 12 hours of headache onset to allow xanthochromia to develop, unless the patient is acutely unwell or has altered GCS, in which case neurosurgery consultation may be necessary.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle into...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle into a bus stop. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, but reports extreme pain in multiple areas. On physical examination, he exhibits tenderness and pain in his right leg, significant abdominal bruising, and diffuse tenderness over his ribcage. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 105 beats/min, blood pressure of 105/62 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, and SpO2 of 98% on room air. Imaging reveals multiple fractures, including a fractured right femur, multiple fractured ribs, and a fractured left tibia. The patient is consented and sent for emergency surgery. Which induction agent is the most preferable for anesthesia?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a suitable choice for anesthesia in trauma patients as it does not lead to a decrease in blood pressure. This is particularly important for patients like the one in this case who have borderline low blood pressure and are at risk of experiencing low blood pressure during surgery. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that can increase blood pressure, making it a useful option for anesthesia in trauma patients. Etomidate, although it has milder cardiovascular effects than propofol, is still not recommended for use in trauma or bleeding patients compared to ketamine. Midazolam, when used as an induction agent, can also cause a drop in blood pressure. Propofol, on the other hand, can cause hypotension in a dose-dependent manner and is therefore not ideal for patients who are already bleeding, have polytrauma, or have borderline blood pressure.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash. He was found to be in a profound coma and subsequently pronounced brain dead.

      What is the accurate diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Brain death testing should be undertaken by two separate doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To ensure accuracy, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors who are knowledgeable in performing brain stem death testing. These doctors should have at least 5 years of post-graduate experience and must not be members of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. The patient being tested should have normal electrolytes and no reversible causes, as well as a deep coma of known aetiology and no sedation. The knee jerk reflex is not used in brain death testing, instead, the corneal reflex and oculovestibular reflexes are tested through the caloric test. It is important to note that brain death testing should be conducted by two separate doctors on separate occasions.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old man has been experiencing a range of medical issues for quite...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been experiencing a range of medical issues for quite some time. He complains of intense abdominal pain after eating, has been diagnosed with diabetes, requires digestive enzymes, and has noticed that his stool floats. These symptoms have all manifested within the past two decades. What is the probable underlying cause of this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is often characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain after eating, steatorrhea, pancreatic enzyme abnormalities, and diabetes. The primary cause of this condition is typically excessive alcohol consumption, which can result in chronic inflammation that affects both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man is undergoing routine screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is undergoing routine screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm. He reports no symptoms. During the ultrasound, the diameter of his abdominal aorta is measured as 4.6cm. What should be the next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.

      The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.

      What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?

      Your Answer: Cigarette smoking

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man appears drowsy and has a strong smell of alcohol. According to his friend, he complained of sudden, severe retrosternal pain that worsened when swallowing. The patient has a history of alcoholic liver disease. His vital signs include a heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, temperature of 37.7ÂșC, oxygen saturation of 98%, and blood pressure of 100/74 mmHg. Upon examination, there are crackles heard on auscultation of his chest wall, and dried vomit is present around his mouth. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices rupture

      Correct Answer: Boerhaave's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a condition where the oesophagus ruptures spontaneously due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This man’s symptoms, including retrosternal chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema, are consistent with the classic triad of Boerhaave’s syndrome. Alcoholics and individuals with bulimia are at higher risk of developing this condition due to forceful vomiting against a closed glottis, which can cause a build-up of pressure in the oesophagus and lead to a transmural rupture. Urgent surgery is required for individuals with this condition, who tend to be systemically unwell.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices, duodenal ulcer haemorrhage, and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are not the correct diagnoses for this man’s symptoms. Bleeding oesophageal varices typically present with life-threatening haematemesis, while duodenal ulcer haemorrhage causes hypotension, melena, and haematemesis. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a small tear at the gastroesophageal junction that usually presents with haematemesis on a background of vomiting. None of these conditions would explain the subcutaneous emphysema or retrosternal chest pain seen in this case.

      Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.

      To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.

      Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.

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