-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female presents with an inflamed non-perforated appendix during surgery.
What is the most reliable indicator of appendicitis, whether it be a symptom, sign, or serological marker?Your Answer: Tenderness over the site of the appendix
Explanation:The Challenge of Diagnosing Appendicitis
The diagnosis of appendicitis can be a challenging task, even for experienced clinicians. Patients with appendicitis typically exhibit a specific set of symptoms and signs. Pain is usually the first symptom, starting around the belly button and then moving to the right lower abdomen as the appendix becomes more inflamed. Following the pain, patients may experience a loss of appetite, nausea, and vomiting. The hallmark of appendicitis is tenderness over the appendix, which is caused by inflammation of the serosa and overlying peritoneum. Pyrexia, or fever, tends to be a late sign and may be very high if the appendix has ruptured. However, laboratory markers of infection, such as white cell count and C-reactive protein, are not reliable indicators of appendicitis as they only become elevated once the condition is established.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy presents with symptoms of right sided loin pain, lethargy and haematuria. On examination he is pyrexial and has a large mass in the right upper quadrant. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perinephric abscess
Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it is highly probable that the child has nephroblastoma, while perinephric abscess is an unlikely diagnosis. Even if an abscess were to develop, it would most likely be contained within Gerota’s fascia initially, making anterior extension improbable.
Nephroblastoma: A Childhood Cancer
Nephroblastoma, also known as Wilm’s tumours, is a type of childhood cancer that typically occurs in the first four years of life. The most common symptom is the presence of a mass, often accompanied by haematuria (blood in urine). In some cases, pyrexia (fever) may also occur in about 50% of patients. Unfortunately, nephroblastomas tend to metastasize early, usually to the lungs.
The primary treatment for nephroblastoma is nephrectomy, which involves the surgical removal of the affected kidney. The prognosis for younger children is generally better, with those under one year of age having an overall 5-year survival rate of 80%. Early detection and treatment are crucial in improving the chances of survival for children with nephroblastoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?
Your Answer: Active malignancy
Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia
Explanation:During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.
Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period
Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.
There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.
In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man is admitted to the orthopaedic ward for a planned hip replacement surgery. He has been evaluated for VTE prophylaxis. Despite his age, he has no other risk factors for VTE or bleeding. What are the recommended VTE prophylaxis measures for this patient?
Your Answer: TED stockings + dalteparin sodium started the morning of surgery
Correct Answer: TED stockings + dalteparin sodium started at least 6 hours post-operation
Explanation:For patients undergoing elective hip replacement, NICE recommends a combination of mechanical and pharmacological methods for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE). The patient should wear TED stockings upon admission, and pharmacological VTE prophylaxis should be administered after surgery, unless there are contraindications such as a risk of bleeding. Low molecular weight heparin, such as dalteparin sodium, is typically started 6 hours after surgery, but other pharmacological methods may also be used. While mechanical prophylaxis with TED stockings is necessary for this patient, it is not sufficient on its own, especially as there is no risk of bleeding. Pharmacological prophylaxis is not started before surgery due to the risk of bleeding during the operation, and a time window is often used postoperatively in case of haematoma formation. Pharmacological prophylaxis should be continued for up to 35 days after surgery.
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man visited his doctor complaining of painless haematuria that had been occurring on and off for three months. He has a past medical history of COPD and IHD, and has smoked 25 packs of cigarettes per year for the past 40 years. Upon examination, no abnormalities were found. However, a urine dipstick test revealed 3+ blood. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bladder squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Bladder transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Bladder cancer typically presents with painless haematuria, which requires referral to a urology haematuria clinic. Approximately 5-10% of microscopic haematuria and 20-25% of frank haematuria will have a urogenital malignancy. Tests carried out in the haematuria clinic include urine analysis, cytology, cystoscopy, and ultrasound. Transitional cell carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer, and smoking increases the risk by threefold. Bladder stones and urinary tract infections may also cause bladder irritation and haematuria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man comes to your GP office and expresses his anxiety about developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) after his friend, who seemed healthy, passed away due to a ruptured AAA. During the physical examination, the patient's vital signs are all normal, and his body mass index is 24 kg/m². Although you can feel his abdominal pulse, it is not expansile. As a result, you decide to educate the patient about the abdominal aortic aneurysm screening program.
What information would you provide to the patient during this discussion?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound every 5 years between 60 and 75-years-old
Correct Answer: A single abdominal ultrasound for those aged 65-years-old
Explanation:A single abdominal ultrasound is offered to all males aged 65 in England for screening of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). This is because the risk of getting an AAA is much smaller in women, men under 65, and those who have already been treated for an AAA. The screening is performed as an individual scan initially, and subsequent scans may be required depending on the size of the AAA. Therefore, options such as abdominal ultrasound every 3 or 5 years between 60 and 75-years-old are incorrect. Similarly, a single abdominal ultrasound for those aged 55 or 60-years-old is also incorrect as the screening is specifically for those aged 65.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Side effect of spinal anaesthesia
Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine
Explanation:TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.
Understanding TURP Syndrome
TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.
The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her left breast. Despite receiving three rounds of antibiotics from her primary care physician over the past four weeks, the erythema and tenderness have not subsided. During the examination, there is noticeable redness and swelling in the breast, and a tender lump can be felt along with swollen lymph nodes in the armpit. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Aspiration of pus for microbiology assessment
Correct Answer: Urgent mammogram
Explanation:Breast Abscess Diagnosis in Older Women
The diagnosis of a breast abscess in older women, particularly those over 70 years old, should be approached with caution as it is a rare occurrence in this age group. If there are additional symptoms such as the presence of a mass or lymphadenopathy, along with the typical signs of erythema and oedema, it is important to consider the possibility of an inflammatory breast cancer. To confirm the diagnosis, a mammogram or ultrasound should be performed, followed by a tissue biopsy. Only after a confirmed diagnosis can appropriate treatment options be considered. It is crucial to be vigilant and thorough in the diagnosis of breast abscesses in older women to ensure that any underlying conditions are identified and treated promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for a lower anterior resection with the goal of restoring intestinal continuity. What type of stoma would be most suitable?
Your Answer: End colostomy
Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:The loop ileostomy is a technique used to redirect the flow of bowel contents away from a distal anastomosis, typically in cases of rectal cancer. When the ileostomy is reversed, it allows for the restoration of bowel continuity and can greatly enhance the patient’s quality of life.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a midline neck lump that has been present for a long time and measures 3 cm. The lump has been causing occasional pain. Upon protruding his tongue, there is upward movement of the swelling. What is the most probable histological diagnosis for this case?
Your Answer: Dermoid cyst
Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst
Explanation:Thyroglossal Cysts
A thyroglossal cyst is a common type of mass that can be found in the midline of the neck. It is typically located at or below the hyoid bone, but it can also be found anywhere from the foramen caecum to the thyroid gland. This type of cyst is most commonly seen in children, and it is often asymptomatic. However, patients may experience recurrent inflammation and infection.
One of the most notable characteristics of a thyroglossal cyst is that it moves up when the tongue is protruded. This can be a helpful diagnostic tool for healthcare providers. While this type of cyst is most commonly seen in childhood, patients may present with symptoms up to the age of 30.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)