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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy and primary anastomosis for a Duke's B adenocarcinoma of the colon. You are asked to see her three days postoperatively due to a heart rate of 105 bpm and a blood pressure of 96/74 mmHg.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.2ºC, her respiratory rate is 20 per minute and her saturations are 99% on air. She has a distended abdomen which is tense and tender but without guarding, her chest is clear and her operative wounds look clean and healthy. She is not feeling nauseated and she has not opened her bowels since before her operation or passed wind but she is starting to sip clear fluids. Her fluid balance chart shows a net positive fluid balance since surgery. Prior to surgery, she had normal renal function and a blood test now shows the following:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.2 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l
      CRP 145.2 mg/l

      What is the most likely cause for the abnormalities in this lady's observations?

      Your Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Ileus is a common complication that can occur in the days following surgery and may lead to hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances before the onset of nausea and vomiting.

      As a junior in general surgery, it is important to be able to identify the cause of a patient’s deterioration. In this case, the patient’s observations and blood tests suggest hypovolemia and acute kidney injury with low electrolytes, indicating a loss of salt and water. However, the overall fluid balance is positive, suggesting that the fluid and salt are accumulating in a third space or body compartment. Ileus is a likely culprit, as it can cause fluid buildup in the intestinal lumen due to decreased peristalsis, resulting in an overall loss of water and salt from the intravascular space but a positive fluid balance. Patients with ileus may experience abdominal distension and tenderness, as well as nausea and vomiting, which may not become apparent for a few days. Treatment typically involves inserting a wide-bore nasogastric tube and administering intravenous fluids until bowel motility returns.

      Dehydration is an unlikely cause of the patient’s deterioration, as the blood test suggests salt dilution rather than concentration. A pulmonary embolism is also unlikely, as it would typically cause obstructive shock and present differently. The absence of fever and clear signs of infection make septic shock an unlikely cause. The raised CRP is likely due to acute inflammation from the recent surgery. An anastomotic leak, which can cause faecal peritonitis and sepsis, can be ruled out due to the absence of peritonism and severe abdominal pain.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his left testicle. The pain started about an hour ago and he rates it as 10/10. He has experienced this pain three times before, but he has never sought medical attention as it usually goes away within an hour. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness of the scrotum.
      After being admitted, the pain and swelling begin to subside.
      What treatment should be administered in this case based on his presentation?

      Your Answer: Elective surgical fixation

      Correct Answer: Emergency surgical fixation

      Explanation:

      In cases of intermittent testicular torsion, prophylactic fixing should be considered. This is especially important for a boy who has experienced repeated episodes of acute testicular pain. Emergency surgical fixation is the most appropriate treatment, as the patient is at high risk of immediate retorsion. Elective surgical fixation is not quick enough for this patient’s presentation. Orchiectomy is only considered in cases where surgery finds dead tissue or the torsion has lasted for more than 24 hours. Co-amoxiclav is not indicated as there is no indication of infection. No treatment is not an option, as prophylactic fixing is necessary even after detorsion.

      Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).

      The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man is seen on the ward round, 5 days after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is seen on the ward round, 5 days after a radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery for bladder cancer. The patient complains of abdominal bloating and has vomited twice. Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is distended, without signs of flank bruising. The wound dressings are dry, and the stoma appears healthy with good urine output. The patient's observations are within normal limits. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 138 g/L (male: 135-180; female: 115-160), platelets of 380 * 109/L (150-400), a white blood cell count of 18.9 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and a CRP level of 122 mg/L (<5). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder distension

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      A 64-year-old man who recently underwent radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. The most probable diagnosis is post-operative ileus, which is a complication of bowel surgery that causes a temporary reduction in intestinal muscle activity, resulting in stasis. The patient’s blood tests show elevated white cells and CRP, which is typical after surgery. Anastomotic leak is a possible differential diagnosis, but the patient’s distended abdomen and normal clinical observations make it less likely than ileus. Bladder distension is not a possible diagnosis since the patient no longer has a bladder. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is another potential postoperative complication, but it is not described in this scenario, which only mentions abdominal pain, reduced hemoglobin, and bruising on the abdomen as symptoms.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his urine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his urine for the past week. He experiences a burning sensation while urinating but no other discomfort. He has noticed some weight loss recently but is unsure of the amount and duration.

      The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis. He takes metformin, amlodipine, methotrexate, and prednisolone for these conditions. He has also had malaria and schistosomiasis in the past. There is no significant family history.

      The patient has a 10 pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol occasionally. He recently returned from 40 years of teaching and traveling in rural Africa.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder urothelial carcinoma (also known as transitional cell carcinoma)

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer of squamous origin is the most probable diagnosis considering the patient’s history of residing in high-risk areas and having schistosomiasis. Nephrolithiasis, on the other hand, would cause renal colic, which patients describe as intense pain waves and discomfort. Clear cell carcinoma, although the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma, is still less prevalent than bladder cancer and would not result in bladder symptoms.

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.

      On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.

      In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old male undergoes a Hartmann's procedure for a sigmoid cancer. On day...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male undergoes a Hartmann's procedure for a sigmoid cancer. On day 2 post-op, nurses are concerned as his colostomy has not passed any wind or stool yet and he is complaining of increasing bloatedness. You review the patient and witness him vomit profusely.

      What is the appropriate management for this common postoperative complication?

      Your Answer: Place the patient nil by mouth and insert a nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      Post-operative ileus is a frequent complication that occurs after colorectal surgery as a result of the manipulation of the bowel during the operation. The management of this condition is typically conservative, involving the insertion of a nasogastric tube to relieve symptoms by decompressing the stomach and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking anything. The reintroduction of fluids and a light diet should be done gradually and based on the patient’s clinical condition.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female presents with recurring abdominal pain that extends to her shoulder,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents with recurring abdominal pain that extends to her shoulder, especially after consuming heavy meals. She experiences nausea and vomiting during these episodes, but no chest pain or shortness of breath. There is no fever present. Upon examination, her pulse and respiratory rate are within normal limits. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is characterized by abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that typically occur after consuming heavy meals. One distinguishing feature of this condition is that the pain can spread to the interscapular region, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragm. Unlike ascending cholangitis, biliary colic does not involve any infection. The absence of chest pain or shortness of breath, along with stable observations, rules out the possibility of pulmonary embolism. While GORD and peptic ulcers can also cause pain and vomiting after eating, they do not typically cause shoulder pain.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having recently quit smoking, and having no complaints. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. However, microscopic haematuria is detected in her urine, and the following results are obtained. The patient did not experience any pain, dysuria, or engage in physical activity before the sample collection.

      Hb 150 g/L
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: CT kidneys, ureter and bladder

      Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      If a patient is over 60 years old and has unexplained non-visible haematuria along with dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, they should be referred to a urologist using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. It is important to exclude bladder cancer as a potential cause, especially if the patient has a history of smoking. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, a CT scan of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it is used to detect radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. If resources are limited, the GP should initiate relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. In lower risk cases, reassurance and re-checking in 2-6 weeks may be considered.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to remove her appendix. She has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to remove her appendix. She has a history of asthma since the age of 16 and is currently taking a high dose inhaled corticosteroid and theophylline. Despite this, she experiences breathlessness and uses her reliever several times a week. She has been to the emergency department twice in the past year due to asthma attacks. Her most recent peak flow measurement was 70%. She does not smoke or drink alcohol.

      As a medical assistant, you are asked by the anesthesiologist to determine the ASA grade for this patient.

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - What is the most frequent complication associated with a clavicle fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent complication associated with a clavicle fracture?

      Your Answer: Injury to brachial plexus

      Correct Answer: Malunion

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risk Factors in Clavicle Fractures

      Clavicle fractures are common injuries that can result in various complications. The most frequent complication is malunion, which can cause angulation, shortening, and poor appearance. Although non-anatomic union is typical of most displaced middle-third clavicle fractures, many experts suggest that such malunion does not significantly affect function.

      Nonunion is another complication that occurs when there is a failure to show clinical or radiographic progression of healing after four to six months. Several risk factors have been identified, including the extent of initial trauma, fracture combinations, fracture displacement, inadequate immobilisation, distal-third fractures, primary open reduction, and refracture.

      It is essential to identify these risk factors to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment. Adequate immobilisation and careful monitoring of the healing process are crucial in preventing nonunion and malunion. In cases where complications do occur, prompt intervention can help minimise the impact on function and appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Too much intravenous normal saline

      Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine

      Explanation:

      TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.

      Understanding TURP Syndrome

      TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.

      The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (4/10) 40%
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