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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers that won't heal. She has a medical history of asthma, diabetes, and recurrent falls, as well as having undergone bilateral hip replacement surgery. Upon examination, the doctor notes periodontal disease, while radiology reports reveal sclerotic lesions in the mandible and maxilla that are indicative of osteonecrosis. Which medication could be responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Calcium supplements
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a potential side effect of bisphosphonates, particularly alendronate, and the risk increases with prolonged use. However, the other options listed are not associated with this condition. While denosumab is also linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw, it is less common than with bisphosphonates. It is unlikely that the patient is taking denosumab as there is no mention of any contraindications to bisphosphonates, and alendronate is the first-line drug for bone protection. Additionally, denosumab is significantly more expensive than alendronate.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. The pain is dull and comes and goes, mainly affecting the posterior and lateral parts of his shoulder. Heavy exercises such as weightlifting and rowing exacerbate the pain, so he has been avoiding these activities. During the examination, you notice tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and there is some weakness on shoulder abduction. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare possibility for this presentation. Which of the following is not a border of the quadrangular space?
Your Answer: Long head of triceps brachii
Correct Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:The correct answer is infraspinatus, which is located superior to the quadrangular space. The quadrangular space is a passage for nerves and vessels between the anterior and posterior regions of the shoulder, bordered by the inferior border of teres major, the lateral border of the surgical neck of the humerus, the medial border of the lateral margin of the long head of triceps brachii, and the superior border of the inferior margin of teres minor. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery pass through this space. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare condition that involves compression of these structures, typically in young adults without trauma. Symptoms may include shoulder pain during resisted abduction and external rotation, as well as wasting of the deltoid muscle.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man experiences a sudden pain in his forearm while lifting a heavy object and is unable to continue. He notices a swelling over his upper forearm and an MRI scan reveals a recent tear with a small cuff of tendon still attached to the radial tuberosity. Which muscle is likely to have been injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps brachii
Explanation:Although ruptures of the biceps muscle near its origin are more common, injuries to the distal portion of the muscle, where it attaches to the radial tuberosity, are less frequent but more significant from a clinical standpoint.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her outstretched hand during a volleyball game. She reports experiencing pain in her left shoulder.
After assessing her neurovascular status, the attending physician orders an x-ray which reveals a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus.
Which muscles are expected to have decreased movement based on the nerve most likely affected by this fracture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teres minor and deltoid
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles. It is composed of nerve fibers from C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus and originates in the axilla. The nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space, located at the lower border of the subscapularis muscle. It then travels medially to the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable to injury in cases of surgical neck fractures. Other muscles innervated by the axillary nerve include the teres major and trapezius, which are supplied by the lower subscapular and accessory nerves, respectively.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42 year old woman comes to your general practice with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for a year. The pain worsens with flexion and she rates it as a 7 on the pain scale. She has tried pain medication but with little success. Upon examination, there is no indication of synovitis, but a small effusion is present in the right wrist. Onycholysis is also observed. Purple plaques are present on the extensor surfaces of the elbows bilaterally. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is strongly linked to psoriasis, with skin and nail bed changes serving as indicators of this related pathological process. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation. For comprehensive information on these conditions, Arthritis Research UK is a valuable resource.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are the physician attending to a 32-year-old expectant mother who is experiencing discomfort in her thumb and index finger. She reports paraesthesia in the palmar region of her thumb and index finger, which worsens at night.
What nerve is likely to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:The patient is experiencing pins and needles and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. These symptoms are indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome, which occurs when the median nerve is compressed due to increased pressure in the carpal tunnel. The distribution of the patient’s symptoms aligns with the area supplied by the median nerve.
The inferior lateral cutaneous nerve does not innervate the thumb and index finger, so it cannot explain the patient’s symptoms. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would cause weakness in the upper arm flexors and impaired sensation in the lateral forearm, but not in the thumb and index finger.
The radial nerve is responsible for wrist extension, and damage to it would result in wrist drop and altered sensation in the dorsum of the hand. The ulnar nerve causes clawing of the hand and paraesthesia in the medial two fingers when damaged, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sural nerve lies medial to the Achilles tendon at its point of insertion
Explanation:The distal fibula is located in front of the sural nerve. Subtalar movements involve inversion and eversion. When passing behind the medial malleolus from front to back, the structures include the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial artery, nerve, and flexor hallucis longus.
Anatomy of the Ankle Joint
The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.
The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.
Reference:
Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling from a stepladder onto her left arm. She reports experiencing elbow pain and limited movement in her left hand.
During the examination, the left elbow is tender to the touch, and there is a decrease in wrist flexion and adduction.
Which nerve is affected by this patient's injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, responsible for wrist flexion and adduction, is innervated by the ulnar nerve. This patient’s reduced wrist flexion and adduction, along with elbow pain, suggest ulnar nerve injury. The axillary, median, and musculocutaneous nerves are not responsible for these symptoms, as they innervate different muscles. The radial nerve, which innervates the extensor compartments, would not cause reduced wrist flexion.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She is in good health otherwise. She reports several finger and wrist fractures during her childhood. Her father and sister have also experienced multiple fractures throughout their lives. On examination, she displays paralumbar tenderness and scoliosis. Her sclera is blue-grey. What type of collagen mutation is likely responsible for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by an abnormality in type 1 collagen, which is the primary component of bone, skin, and tendons. The diagnosis is based on a combination of factors, including a history of fractures, scoliosis, family history, and physical examination findings. In contrast, mutations in type 2 collagen can lead to chondrodysplasias, while mutations in type 3 collagen may cause a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Additionally, mutations in type 4 collagen can result in Alport’s syndrome and Goodpasture’s syndrome, as this type of collagen forms the basal lamina.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits his physician complaining of a rash that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple oval-shaped lesions with a fine-scale on the outer aspects of the lesions. The rash has spread across the patient's trunk and back, resembling a fir tree. The patient reports feeling generally well. The doctor suspects pityriasis rosea and wonders which organism has been linked to its development.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7)
Explanation:Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) is believed to be involved in the development of pityriasis rosea, while the other choices are not linked to this condition. Slapped cheek syndrome is associated with Parvovirus B-19, while Coxsackie B virus is an enterovirus that is associated with aseptic meningitis, Bornholm disease, pericarditis, and myocarditis.
Understanding Pityriasis Rosea
Pityriasis rosea is a rash that typically affects young adults and is characterized by an acute, self-limiting nature. While the exact cause is not fully understood, it is believed that herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) may play a role. Most patients do not experience any warning signs, but some may report a recent viral infection. The rash begins with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by oval, scaly patches that follow a distinct pattern with the longitudinal diameters running parallel to the line of Langer, creating a fir-tree appearance.
The condition is self-limiting and usually disappears within 6-12 weeks. There is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, but topical agents used for psoriasis may be helpful. UVB phototherapy may also be an option. It is important to differentiate pityriasis rosea from guttate psoriasis, which is characterized by tear-drop shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. Both conditions typically resolve spontaneously within a few months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of stiffness and swelling in the joints of his right hand. Upon examination, you notice uniform swellings mainly affecting the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints, which are firm to the touch and not painful. The patient is in good overall health, and no other joints appear to be affected. There is no significant medical history to report.
What is the most probable clinical sign observed in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heberden's nodes
Explanation:Heberden’s nodes are bony growths that occur on the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints and are associated with osteoarthritis. In contrast, Bouchard’s nodes are bony growths that occur on the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints. The Boutonniere deformity, on the other hand, is characterized by PIP joint flexion and DIP extension, and is caused by damage to the extensor tendon slip, often due to rheumatoid arthritis or trauma. Rheumatoid nodules are subcutaneous lumps that occur on areas of pressure and are associated with active rheumatoid arthritis disease. However, in this case, the asymmetrical presentation and lack of other joint involvement or systemic symptoms suggest that the correct answer is Heberden’s nodes.
Hand Diseases and Lumps
Dupuytren’s contracture is a hand disease that causes the fingers to bend towards the palm and cannot be fully extended. It is caused by contractures of the palmar aponeurosis and is more common in males over 40 years of age. Treatment is surgical, but the condition may recur and surgical therapies carry risks.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common hand disease that affects the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. It is more common in females and may be associated with other connective tissue disorders. Symptoms occur mainly at night and treatment is by surgical decompression or non-surgical options such as splinting.
There are also various hand lumps that can occur. Osler’s nodes are painful, red, raised lesions caused by immune complexes. Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths on the middle joints of fingers or toes and are a sign of osteoarthritis. Heberden’s nodes develop in middle age and cause a permanent bony outgrowth that skews the fingertip sideways. Ganglion is a fluid-filled swelling near a joint that is usually asymptomatic and may be excised if troublesome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps muscle arise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle
Explanation:The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin of the long head, while the lateral and medial heads are connected to the back of the humerus, specifically between the teres minor insertion and the olecranon fossa.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is not involved in shoulder adduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The shoulder abductor is the supraspinatus.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.
Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot
Explanation:A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.
What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity
Explanation:Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP with a complaint of gradual loss of extension in his 4th and 5th finger. During the examination, the doctor observes the presence of nodules between the affected fingers.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Explanation:Dupuytren’s contracture commonly affects the ring finger and little finger, particularly in older males. This condition causes nodules and cord development in the palmar fascia, resulting in flexion at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.
Trigger finger causes stiffness, pain, and a locking sensation when flexing, making it difficult to extend the finger.
Ganglion cysts, also known as bible cysts, are typically soft and found in the dorsal and volar aspect of the wrist. Many cysts will disappear on their own.
Flexor tendon rupture is usually caused by trauma to the flexor tendon, such as a sports injury. This condition is typically acute and results in a sudden loss of flexion in the affected finger, often requiring surgery.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding rheumatoid factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually an IgM molecule reacting against patient's own IgG
Explanation:IgM antibody against IgG is known as rheumatoid factor.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of psoriasis visits his doctor complaining of new lesions on his back. He mentions that he has only ever had lesions on his knees and elbows before and is worried. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he recently got a tattoo on his back, which is only a week old. He also notes that the new lesions appeared shortly after getting the tattoo. The doctor considers a phenomenon in which new psoriatic lesions develop after skin trauma in patients with psoriasis. What is the term for this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Koebner
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of skin lesions at the site of injury. Patients with a history of psoriasis and recent skin trauma are at risk of developing this phenomenon, which can also occur in individuals with other skin conditions like warts and vitiligo. Lichen planus is another condition where the Koebner phenomenon is observed. In contrast, the Nikolsky phenomenon is a dermatological phenomenon seen in pemphigus vulgaris, where the epidermis can be moved over the dermis upon palpation. Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis, causing joint inflammation, pain, stiffness, and swelling.
The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female presents to her primary healthcare provider with painful blisters on her gingival and buccal mucosa and skin that easily rupture and cause ulcers. The oral blisters began three months ago and the cutaneous lesions just a week ago. She has a medical history of hypertension, vitiligo, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination of the oral cavity and skin, scattered shallow ulcerations ranging from 8 mm to 1 cm in diameter were observed. A biopsy of the lesions revealed acantholysis. The patient has been prescribed corticosteroids.
What is the most likely cause of this condition in the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman complains of throbbing hip pain that has been gradually developing for 2 months. She had a fall during gardening a year ago that resulted in a fracture of the neck of her right femur.
During examination, she displays a decent range of motion at the hip, but she is experiencing a considerable amount of pain.
Based on the probable reason for her persistent pain, which blood vessel is most likely affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation:The primary supplier of blood to the femoral head is the medial femoral circumflex artery. If this artery is compromised, it can lead to avascular necrosis, a condition where the bone’s blood supply is disrupted, causing ischemic and necrotic changes. This can slow down recovery and increase the risk of arthritis and bone collapse. In children, the artery of ligamentum teres is the main blood supply to the femoral head and is commonly compromised due to dislocations. The internal iliac artery supplies much of the pelvis but is unlikely to be damaged in a neck of femur fracture, while the lateral femoral circumflex artery supplies the muscles of the anterior thigh.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with pain in his right leg.
During physical examination, a clearly demarcated fiery-red lesion is observed on the anterior aspect of the right leg. The lesion is raised above the level of the surrounding skin. Laboratory testing results are as follows:
- WBC: 15 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- CRP: 36 mg/L (normal range: < 5)
Based on the clinical picture and laboratory findings, erysipelas is suspected. What is the most likely causative organism in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Erysipelas is a skin infection that is localized and caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, a Group A streptococcus (GAS) bacterium. This infection affects the upper dermis and can spread to the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive coccus that grows in chains.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium that normally resides in the intestines of healthy individuals and animals. However, some strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins that can cause gastrointestinal illness or urinary tract infections.
Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease, such as meningococcemia, which is a life-threatening sepsis.
Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium that colonizes the skin and mucous membranes of humans and animals. It can cause cellulitis, which is an infection of the deeper skin tissues. Cellulitis typically presents as an ill-defined rash, in contrast to erysipelas, which has a sharper edge and is raised.
Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection
Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.
The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A chronic slip, with symptoms over weeks to months is the most common presentation
Explanation:Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children
Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow and Ortolani tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.
Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.
The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of worsening bone pain in her left hip over the past few days. She mentions feeling ill and feverish, but attributes it to a recent cold. The patient is a known IV drug user and has not traveled recently.
During the examination, the left hip appears red and tender, and multiple track marks are visible.
Which organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus in both adults and children. IV drug use is a known risk factor for this condition as it can introduce microorganisms directly into the bloodstream. While Escherichia coli can also cause osteomyelitis, it is more prevalent in children than adults. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also lead to osteomyelitis, but it is less common than Staphylococcus aureus. Bone introduction typically occurs via the circulatory system from pulmonary tuberculosis. However, antitubercular therapy has reduced the incidence of tuberculosis, making bone introduction less likely than with Staphylococcus aureus, which is part of the normal skin flora. Salmonella enterica is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in individuals with sickle cell disease. As the patient is not known to have sickle cell, Staphylococcus aureus remains the most probable cause.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In a confrontation, a 35-year-old woman was stabbed in the medial aspect of her left thigh. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in knee extension. Additionally, there is a reduction in sensation over the anterior thigh.
Which anatomical structure has been affected by the stabbing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:The femoral nerve is responsible for loss of knee extension and sensory loss to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh following a stab injury. The muscles innervated by the femoral nerve are responsible for hip flexion and knee extension, while the nerve is responsible for sensation over the anterior thigh. Injury to the inferior gluteal nerve would result in loss of hip extension, while injury to the obturator nerve would result in a loss of sensation to the medial thigh and impaired hip adduction. Although the quadriceps tendon is vital to knee extension, it would not explain the sensory deficit and the location of the injury.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left lower leg. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically self-sufficient and healthy.
During the examination, the physician notes palpable tenderness and significant bruising on the lateral side of the left leg, just below the knee. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot.
Which anatomical structure is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The patient is experiencing foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex the foot, following a fibular neck fracture. This injury commonly affects the common peroneal nerve, which supplies the dorsum of the foot and lower, lateral part of the leg. The patient’s history of falling from a skateboard and tenderness and bruising over the lower left leg support this diagnosis.
Achilles tendon rupture, on the other hand, presents with sudden-onset pain and a popping sensation at the back of the heel. It is more common in athletes or those taking certain medications. The deltoid ligament, which stabilizes the ankle against eversion injury, is less commonly injured and would not cause foot drop. The femoral nerve, which supplies the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in knee extension, is not affected by a fibular neck fracture and does not cause foot drop. The tibial nerve, responsible for foot plantarflexion and inversion, is not directly involved in foot drop, although its lack of opposing action from the anterior muscle group of the lower leg may contribute to the foot’s plantarflexed position.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachialis
Explanation:The ulna serves as the insertion point for the brachialis muscle, while the remaining muscles are inserted onto the radius.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily.
Which nerves are involved in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition.
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the carpal tunnel as it passes through the wrist.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of anterior hip pain that exacerbates when he lifts his thigh towards his chest. Upon further inquiry, the physician discovers that the patient is an avid runner and runs more than 60 km per week. The physician suspects that the pain may be a result of the patient overusing his hip flexor muscles.
Based on the physician's suspicion, which muscle is the most probable to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliopsoas
Explanation:Although Pectineus is a hip flexor, it is not as significant as iliopsoas in this function. Its origin is the pubic bone, and it inserts into the femur. Additionally, it assists in adducting and internally rotating the thigh.
The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action
The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.
The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotation of the radius on the ulna
Explanation:The movement of the arm’s pronation and supination is caused by the rotation of the radius bone, while the ulna bone remains still. This movement involves two joints: the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints. The humerus bone remains stationary during this process, while the radial head rotates on the humerus’s capitulum. It’s worth noting that the distal carpal bones don’t move in relation to the distal radius during pronation and supination.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the hospital with haemoptysis and cough. In the past two weeks, he has also had three episodes of epistaxis. The systemic review reveals that he has had a headache for more than three months that originates from his forehead and worsens on bending forwards. His urine has also been dark for the past one month.
Physical examination shows a purpuric rash on both legs. His laboratory test results are:
Hb 97 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Urea 35 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 430 µmol/L (55 - 120)
There is evidence of proteinuria and red cell casts on urinalysis. Chest X-ray demonstrates multiple lesions in both lungs. A lung biopsy is taken which on histopathology shows granulomas surrounded by histiocytes. Immunofluorescence reveals heavy granular staining in the cytoplasm suggestive of an autoantibody.
Which target is this antibody most likely to react with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serine proteinase 3 (PR3)
Explanation:ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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