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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset frank haematuria. He has been passing blood and clots during urination for the past three days. He denies any dysuria or abdominal pain. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft without tenderness or palpable masses in the abdomen or renal angles. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to determine the cause of his haematuria?

      Your Answer: CT scan of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast

      Correct Answer: Flexible cystoscopy

      Explanation:

      When lower urinary tract tumour is suspected based on the patient’s history and risk factors, cystoscopy is the preferred diagnostic method for bladder cancer. If a bladder tumour is confirmed, a CT scan or PET-CT may be necessary to evaluate metastatic spread. While a CT-angiogram can identify a bleeding source, it is unlikely to be useful in this case as the patient is stable and a bleeding source is unlikely to be detected.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of lower back pain...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of lower back pain that has been present for 2 hours. He describes the pain as achy and rates it 6 out of 10 on the pain scale. During the examination, he exhibits tenderness in his abdomen and loin area. Despite receiving a 500ml fluid bolus, his blood pressure remains at 100/70 mmHg, and his heart rate is 110/min. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, causing dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 50, with diameters of 3 cm or greater considered aneurysmal. The development of aneurysms is a complex process involving the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the pathophysiology of abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to identify and manage risk factors, as well as to provide appropriate treatment for those affected. By recognizing the underlying causes and risk factors, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of aneurysms and improve outcomes for those affected.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain and profuse...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain and profuse vomiting. She has a history of sarcoidosis currently being treated with prednisolone. She drinks 40 units of alcohol per week. Bloods showed a serum amylase of 3000 U/L. The patient is treated with IV fluids and anti-emetics and is admitted under general surgery.

      During your overnight review of the patient, you order urgent blood tests, including an arterial blood gas (ABG). Which blood result would be the most concerning and prompt you to consider an intensive care review?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, but the severity of pancreatitis is indicated by hypocalcaemia. The patient in question has acute pancreatitis due to multiple risk factors, including steroid use, alcohol excess, and possible hypercalcaemia from sarcoidosis. The Glasgow-Imrie criteria are used to determine severity, with three or more criteria indicating severe acute pancreatitis and requiring intensive care review. Hypocalcaemia (with serum calcium <2 mmol/L) is the only criterion listed above. Hyperglycaemia (blood glucose of 3.7 mmol/L) is also an indicator of severity, while hypertriglyceridemia is a cause of pancreatitis but not an indicator of severity. Leucocytosis (WBC >15 x 109/L) is an indicator of severity, but neutropenia is not mentioned as a criterion.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her left breast. Despite receiving three rounds of antibiotics from her primary care physician over the past four weeks, the erythema and tenderness have not subsided. During the examination, there is noticeable redness and swelling in the breast, and a tender lump can be felt along with swollen lymph nodes in the armpit. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent mammogram

      Explanation:

      Breast Abscess Diagnosis in Older Women

      The diagnosis of a breast abscess in older women, particularly those over 70 years old, should be approached with caution as it is a rare occurrence in this age group. If there are additional symptoms such as the presence of a mass or lymphadenopathy, along with the typical signs of erythema and oedema, it is important to consider the possibility of an inflammatory breast cancer. To confirm the diagnosis, a mammogram or ultrasound should be performed, followed by a tissue biopsy. Only after a confirmed diagnosis can appropriate treatment options be considered. It is crucial to be vigilant and thorough in the diagnosis of breast abscesses in older women to ensure that any underlying conditions are identified and treated promptly.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no discomfort or other symptoms.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent surgical referral

      Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral

      Explanation:

      Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient has an inguinal hernia and is fit for surgery, making surgical referral appropriate. Physiotherapy referral is not necessary in this case, and reassurance and safety netting should still be provided. An ultrasound scan is not needed as the surgical team will determine if imaging is necessary.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by two episodes of vomiting within the last hour. Despite a normal CT scan, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later reveals xanthochromia, leading to a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Urgent neurosurgical consultation is requested, and a CT cerebral angiography confirms a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the underlying cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise healthy. What is the most suitable treatment option for the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, urgent intervention is necessary for intracranial aneurysms due to the risk of rebleeding. The most common treatment for this is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist, which involves inserting soft metallic coils into the aneurysm to exclude it from intracranial circulation. This is less invasive than surgical clipping. While nimodipine is used to reduce vasospasm following a SAH, it is not sufficient on its own and additional intervention is required. Typically, nimodipine is administered for 21 days and targets the brain vasculature by inhibiting calcium channels.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the examination, you notice a small, direct inguinal hernia. He asks about the likelihood of strangulation if he chooses not to have surgery within the next year. What is the estimated risk of strangulation over the next 12 months?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Indirect hernias are more likely to cause bowel obstruction, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Elective repair of hernias is generally safe, but emergency repair carries a higher risk of mortality, especially in older patients.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old girl is discovered unresponsive in the bathtub and is rushed to...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is discovered unresponsive in the bathtub and is rushed to the emergency department in a state of paediatric cardiac arrest. Despite attempts to establish peripheral IV access, the medical team is unable to do so. The decision is made by the registrar to insert an intraosseous line. What is the most frequently used insertion site for this type of line?

      Your Answer: Proximal tibia

      Explanation:

      When it is difficult to obtain vascular access in an emergency situation, intraosseous access is often used. This method can be used for both adults and children, with the proximal tibia being the most common site for insertion. In paediatric cases, it is recommended to attempt two peripheral intravenous lines before moving on to intraosseous access. Other potential sites for insertion include the distal femur and humeral head.

      Different Routes for Venous Access

      There are various methods for establishing venous access, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. The peripheral venous cannula is easy to insert and has a wide lumen for rapid fluid infusions. However, it is unsuitable for administering vasoactive or irritant drugs and may cause infections if not properly managed. On the other hand, central lines have multiple lumens for multiple infusions but are more difficult to insert and require ultrasound guidance. Femoral lines are easier to manage but have high infection rates, while internal jugular lines are preferred. Intraosseous access is typically used in pediatric practice but can also be used in adults for a wide range of fluid infusions. Tunnelled lines, such as Groshong and Hickman lines, are popular for long-term therapeutic requirements and can be linked to injection ports. Finally, peripherally inserted central cannulas (PICC lines) are less prone to major complications and are inserted peripherally.

      Overall, the choice of venous access route depends on the patient’s condition, the type of infusion required, and the operator’s expertise. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each method and to properly manage any complications that may arise.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - As an FY1 doctor, you are summoned to attend an unconscious 64-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY1 doctor, you are summoned to attend an unconscious 64-year-old woman lying on the floor of a ward. Upon assessing her airway, you notice that it appears clear, but you can hear snoring. However, the snoring ceases when you perform a head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust. Upon auscultation, her chest is clear with good bilateral airflow, and her trachea is central. Her peripheral capillary refill takes more than 2 seconds. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on 4L of oxygen, her pulse is weak and regular at 105/min, her respiratory rate is 16/min, her blood pressure is 98/54 mmHg, and her temperature is 36.6 ºC.

      What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway device

      Correct Answer: Insert an oropharyngeal tube

      Explanation:

      Three basic techniques, namely head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust, can effectively alleviate airway blockage caused by weak pharyngeal muscles.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening abdominal pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening abdominal pain over the past two days. The pain started in the lower left side of his abdomen and he has been experiencing diarrhoea. He has a medical history of hypertension, chronic kidney disease, and diverticular disease. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, temperature is 38.5ºC, and oxygen saturation is 96% on air. His abdomen is tender throughout with involuntary guarding and rebound tenderness. Blood tests reveal the following results:
      Hb 140 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 9 µmol/l
      Platelets 730 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 70 u/l
      WBC 18.9 * 109/l Urea 6.3 mmol/l ALT 36 u/l
      Neuts 16.1 * 109/l Creatinine 115 µmol/l γGT 57 u/l
      Lymphs 2.0 * 109/l Amylase 8 u/l Albumin 35 g/l

      Which diagnostic test would be most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Erect chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      To detect bowel perforation, an erect chest x-ray is commonly used. This is particularly useful in cases of suspected perforated diverticulitis, as it can reveal the presence of pneumoperitoneum (air under the diaphragm). A supine chest x-ray is not as effective in detecting this. While an abdominal x-ray can also suggest pneumoperitoneum, it is less sensitive than an erect chest x-ray. An intravenous urogram is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not align with those of ureteric colic, which is the most likely diagnosis. Ultrasound may also reveal air in the abdominal cavity, but its accuracy and image quality can vary greatly, making it a less optimal choice.

      An erect chest x-ray is a useful tool for diagnosing an acute abdomen, as it can reveal the presence of free air in the abdomen, also known as pneumoperitoneum. This abnormal finding is indicative of a perforated abdominal viscus, such as a perforated duodenal ulcer. On an abdominal film, Rigler’s sign, also known as the double wall sign, may be visible. However, CT scans are now the preferred method for detecting free air in the abdomen.

      The image used on license from Radiopaedia shows an erect chest x-ray with air visible under the diaphragm on both sides. Another image from Radiopaedia demonstrates an abdominal x-ray with numerous loops of small bowel outlined by gas, both within the lumen and free within the peritoneal cavity. Ascites, or fluid in the abdomen, is also visible, with mottled gas densities over bilateral paracolic gutters. In a normal x-ray, only the luminal surface should be visible outlined by gas, while the serosal surface should not be visible as it is normally in contact with other intra-abdominal content of similar density. However, in this case, gas abuts the serosal surface, making it visible. As this film was obtained supine, ascites pools in the paracolic gutters, with fluid mixed in with gas bubbles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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