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  • Question 1 - Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression....

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression. She reports being allergic to all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and requests dothiepin and temazepam. Upon examination, you observe that she appears thin and disheveled. Additionally, she exhibits rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and frequent yawning. What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Cocaine abuse

      Correct Answer: Heroin abuse

      Explanation:

      Most drug abusers consume multiple types of drugs, and although Dothiepin has sedative effects, it can be extremely hazardous when taken in excessive amounts.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.4
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  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma

      The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:

      Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.

      Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.

      Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.

      In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should raise concern for a possible hospital referral?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 54 / min

      Correct Answer: Feeding 50% of the normal amount

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.8
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the Outpatient Clinic with involuntary movements in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the Outpatient Clinic with involuntary movements in her lower and upper limbs that began 2 weeks ago. She has a history of schizophrenia and has been taking her medication regularly for the past 4 months, including haloperidol. During the examination, her temperature is 37.6 °C, blood pressure is 122/83 mmHg, and pulse is 96 bpm.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonia

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Side Effects of Anti-Psychotic Medication

      Anti-psychotic medication is commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, but it can also cause several side effects. One of the most common side effects is tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements in the tongue, fingers, or trunk. Another side effect is akathisia, or motor restlessness, which is caused by medications like haloperidol.

      Acute dystonia is another side effect that can occur within hours of taking anti-psychotic medication. It presents with spasms in various muscle groups. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare side effect that occurs during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of the ryanodine receptor gene in the sarcoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium in the skeletal muscle. Treatment for malignant hyperthermia involves dantrolene and supportive care.

      Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a serious side effect that can occur with high-potency anti-psychotic medication like haloperidol. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms such as cooling the patient and administering dantrolene or bromocriptine. It is important to understand these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.6
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have been affecting her for several years but are now becoming more disruptive to her daily life. She has been experiencing obsessive thoughts about her loved ones being harmed and feels compelled to perform certain rituals to prevent this from happening. She spends hours each day checking and rechecking that appliances are turned off and doors are locked. Her relationships are suffering, and she is struggling to maintain her job. She is hesitant to take medication but is open to exploring other treatment options.
      What is the most appropriate psychological approach for managing OCD in this case?

      Your Answer: Exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Different Therapies for OCD: A Comparison

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that can be managed with various therapies. The most effective ones are exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), which are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). ERP involves exposing the patient to situations that trigger their compulsive behaviour while preventing them from acting on it. CBT, on the other hand, focuses on changing the patient’s thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes that contribute to their OCD.

      Transactional analysis and psychoanalysis are not recommended for treating OCD as there is no evidence to support their use. Transactional analysis involves analysing social transactions to determine the ego state of the patient, while psychoanalysis involves exploring the unconscious to resolve underlying conflicts.

      Counselling is also not appropriate for managing OCD as it is non-directive and does not provide specific coping skills.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is not effective for treating OCD either, as it is primarily used for post-traumatic stress disorder. EMDR combines rapid eye movement with cognitive tasks to help patients process traumatic experiences.

      In conclusion, ERP and CBT are the most effective therapies for managing OCD, while other therapies such as transactional analysis, psychoanalysis, counselling, and EMDR are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36.6
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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      17.9
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  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first scan at 20 weeks. During the ultrasound, a 'snow-storm' appearance is observed without visible foetal parts. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      A snowstorm appearance on ultrasound scan is indicative of a complete hydatidiform mole, which occurs when all genetic material comes from the father and no foetal parts are present. Vaginal bleeding is often the first symptom. In contrast, an incomplete hydatidiform mole results from two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes, and may have foetal parts present without a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Gestational diabetes can cause foetal structural abnormalities and macrosomia, but not a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. An incomplete miscarriage may cause vaginal bleeding, but it would not result in a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man presents with perianal pain, bleeding and a palpable mass that...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with perianal pain, bleeding and a palpable mass that is not consistent with a haemorrhoid. He reports having multiple male sexual partners and engaging in unprotected anal sex. An anoscopic examination with biopsy is performed, and the histology confirms a squamous cell carcinoma. The cancer is staged at T3 based on its size. What is the most significant risk factor for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV infection

      Correct Answer: HPV infection

      Explanation:

      Anal cancer is primarily caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), with approximately 90% of cases being linked to this viral infection. While being on immunosuppressive medication can increase the risk of anal cancer, this is believed to be due to the higher likelihood of contracting HPV. HIV infection has also been associated with anal cancer, but this is thought to be a result of the virus weakening the immune system and making it more difficult for the body to fight off HPV. Men who have sex with men are also at a higher risk of developing anal cancer, but this is likely due to their increased risk of contracting HPV.

      Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors

      Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).

      There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.

      To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).

      In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 94-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall at home. He...

    Correct

    • A 94-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall at home. He reports pain in his right groin when moving and is unable to put weight on his leg, despite taking regular full-dose paracetamol and codeine. Although his pain is well managed when he is at rest, he feels drowsy from the pain relief. An X-ray of his hip and pelvis has revealed no apparent cause for his discomfort. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of hip and pelvis

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a neck of femur fracture and is unable to bear weight despite pain relief, further imaging is necessary to rule out an occult fracture. An MRI scan is the best option as it has almost 100% sensitivity for detecting such fractures and can also identify soft tissue injuries. If an MRI is not available or contraindicated, a CT scan should be performed. Physiotherapy and rehabilitation should be put on hold until a fracture is ruled out. A bone scan or CT may be considered if there is a delay in arranging an MRI and suspicion of an occult fracture. Oral morphine sulfate may be appropriate for pain relief, but caution is needed to avoid drowsiness and further falls. A repeat plain film is unlikely to be helpful as it has lower sensitivity than an MRI and the patient may not be able to weight-bear for the film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and nausea while on the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and nausea while on the ward. He underwent an emergency laparotomy for a perforated diverticulum four days ago. The patient has already vomited twice this morning and has not had a bowel movement since the surgery. Upon examination, his abdomen is significantly distended with tenderness throughout. Bowel sounds are reduced, but vital signs are normal. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Opiate-induced constipation

      Correct Answer: Postoperative ileus

      Explanation:

      After undergoing bowel surgery, experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate the presence of postoperative ileus.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding. He reports a recent loss of appetite and occasional abdominal pain over the past few months. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l 130 – 180 g/l
      Mean corpuscular value (MCV) 93 fl 80 –100 fl
      What is the most suitable test to conduct for the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Colonic transit study

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms that suggest a blockage in their bowel and potential signs of cancer, such as a loss of appetite and anemia. Therefore, the most important initial investigation is a colonoscopy. A colonic transit study is not appropriate as it is used for slow colonic transit and this patient has symptoms of obstruction. An abdominal X-ray can be used to investigate faecal impaction and rectal masses, but a colonoscopy should be used first-line for detailed information about colonic masses. While a CT abdomen may be needed, a colonoscopy should be performed as the initial investigation for intestinal luminal obstruction and potential malignancy. Checking thyroid function may be useful if there is suspicion of a secondary cause of constipation, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest colonic obstruction and cancer, making a thyroid function test an inappropriate initial investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 7-month-old baby weighing 8.5 kg has been admitted to the hospital due...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old baby weighing 8.5 kg has been admitted to the hospital due to a respiratory infection. The doctor has prescribed an intravenous antibiotic for the baby. The loading dose recommended is 3 mg/kg, and the maintenance dose is 0.75 mg/kg to be given every 12 hours. What is the correct dosing regimen to prescribe for this baby?

      Your Answer: Loading dose of 24 mg, maintenance dose of 6 mg 12 hourly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Body Weight and Dosing Interval in Drug Prescription

      Many drugs require prescription based on body weight, especially in paediatrics. The initial dose, known as the loading dose, is calculated based on the weight of the patient. The maintenance dose is then determined and given at regular intervals to prevent total elimination of the drug from the body. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, meaning that their clearance rate is determined by their half-life. If the half-life of a drug is short, dosing must be frequent to maintain therapeutic concentrations in the blood.

      In some cases, such as in the treatment of infections, it is crucial to achieve therapeutic concentrations of the drug as soon as possible to maximize efficacy and prevent bacterial resistance. This may require the use of a loading dose to quickly attain high concentrations of the drug. The timing of dosing intervals is also important in maintaining therapeutic concentrations. Overall, the importance of body weight and dosing intervals in drug prescription is crucial for achieving optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old female presents with tiredness and vague aches for many years. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with tiredness and vague aches for many years. The following results were obtained:
      - Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (133-144)
      - Serum potassium: 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine: 100 μmol/L (50-100)
      - Serum calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (2.20 - 2.60)
      - Serum albumin: 38 g/L (35-50)
      - Corrected calcium: 3.02 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
      - Serum phosphate: 0.87 mmol/L (0.80 - 1.45)
      - Serum alk phosphatase: 117 IU/L (30-115)
      - Serum asp transaminase: 20 I U/L (5-45)
      - Serum bilirubin: 8 umol/L (1-17)

      The patient appears generally well, with a blood pressure of 160/80 mmHg, a pulse of 80 beats per minute, normal heart, chest and abdominal examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia and Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. While there are several possible causes of hypercalcaemia, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. Although other conditions can also cause hypercalcaemia, the absence of these symptoms makes them less likely. In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism, phosphate levels will typically be at the lower end of the normal range.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is relatively common in elderly populations, with up to 1% of individuals affected. Symptoms can include renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain from peptic ulceration. Hypertension is also a common feature. Additionally, the polyuria associated with hypercalcaemia may lead to mild hypokalaemia.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia is a condition that can have several possible causes, but primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain, as well as hypertension and mild hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 15 - Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue....

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue. What medical condition is commonly linked to Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is commonly found in individuals with Down syndrome, while the risk of hyperthyroidism is also increased. Type-1 diabetes is more prevalent in those with Down syndrome, but there is no association with ADHD. Fragile X is linked to ADHD, and male breast cancer is not associated with Down syndrome but has been linked to Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma glutamyl transferase levels. Their albumin and INR are within normal limits. What is the most probable cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Elevated Liver Enzymes: Differentiating Cholestasis from Other Causes

      Elevated liver enzymes, specifically alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT), can indicate cholestasis, a condition where bile flow from the liver is impaired. ALP and GGT are both found in the lining of bile ducts, so their simultaneous elevation suggests cholestasis rather than hepatitis, where transaminases from hepatocytes are predominantly raised. However, other factors can also cause elevated ALP and GGT. For instance, ALP has three isoenzymes, and non-liver ALP can be elevated in bone disease or pregnancy. GGT can also be induced by certain drugs, such as alcohol and phenytoin.

      To differentiate cholestasis from other causes of elevated liver enzymes, it is important to consider the clinical context and other investigations. In the case of significantly raised ALP and GGT, primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is the most likely cause, especially if anti-mitochondrial antibodies are present. PBC is an autoimmune condition that damages the bile canaliculi in the liver, leading to scarring and cirrhosis. On the other hand, alcoholic hepatitis would cause a hepatitis pattern in liver enzymes, with transaminases being predominantly elevated.

      In summary, elevated ALP and GGT suggest cholestasis, but other factors such as non-liver ALP and drug-induced GGT elevation should also be considered. the underlying cause of elevated liver enzymes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.9
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain. She says that she has had the pain for past two years and that it started gradually. The patient has no past medical history. There is no evidence or history of trauma. Upon examination the patient has normal power in the lower and upper limbs, and sensation is intact. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no significant family history. She is discharged with analgesia.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Referral to physiotherapy and sign off work

      Correct Answer: Mobilisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Back Pain: Explained

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. In managing lower back pain, it is important to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s back pain is most likely mechanical in nature. Mobilisation has been shown to be effective in reducing back pain, and bed rest is not advised as it can worsen the pain and affect the patient’s daily activities. A lumbar X-ray is not necessary unless there is suspicion of a fracture. Referral to physiotherapy or alternative therapies may be considered if initial management is not effective. An MRI would be indicated if there are any ‘red flags’ in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
      Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The anaesthetic team is getting ready for a knee replacement surgery for a...

    Incorrect

    • The anaesthetic team is getting ready for a knee replacement surgery for a patient who is 35 years old. She is 1.60 metres tall and weighs 80 kilograms. She does not smoke or drink and has no known medical conditions. Additionally, she does not take any regular medications. What would be the ASA score for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a paracetamol overdose. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a paracetamol overdose. He reports taking 40 tablets in the last 3 hours and has presented to the hospital within 10 minutes of ingesting the last tablet. He weighs 70kg. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Give him activated charcoal and start him on acetylcysteine immediately

      Explanation:

      If there is uncertainty about the time of overdose but it could be toxic, if the overdose was staggered over a period of more than an hour, if the plasma-paracetamol level is above the treatment line on the treatment graph, or if the overdose was taken 8-36 hours before presenting, the BNF recommends starting acetylcysteine immediately. In this case, since the second bullet point is true, there is no need to wait for plasma-paracetamol levels to come back from the lab, although it may still be helpful to take them before beginning treatment. Additionally, the BNF warns that doses as low as 150 mg/kg within 24 hours can be fatal, and in this case, the individual has taken 16g of paracetamol, which equates to 246 mg/kg for their weight of 65 kg.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old girl comes to see you, the practice nurse, after getting an...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to see you, the practice nurse, after getting an open wound on her right arm while playing basketball. Upon examination, you find a 5 cm wound that is dirty and contains dirt. What is the best course of action for tetanus vaccination in this patient?

      Your Answer: If his immunisation status is uncertain he should receive tetanus immunoglobulin and vaccine

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Treatment for Tetanus Prone Wounds

      When it comes to tetanus vaccination, individuals who have completed the full five-course of the vaccine are not recommended to receive any further doses if they suffer a tetanus prone wound. However, there is some disagreement over whether or not to administer Tetanus Immune Globulin (TIG) to those who are known to be fully immunized. Some sources suggest giving TIG for all high-risk wounds, while others recommend it only if five years have passed since the last dose. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action in the event of a tetanus prone wound. Proper vaccination and treatment can prevent the potentially fatal effects of tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Practice
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture followed by CT head

      Correct Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the mode of action of cholestyramine in the management of hyperlipidemia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of cholestyramine in the management of hyperlipidemia?

      Your Answer: Stimulate increased action of the enzyme lipoprotein lipase

      Correct Answer: Prevent cholesterol absorption from the intestine

      Explanation:

      Limitations of Bile Acid Sequestrants

      Bile acid sequestrants are medications that are used to lower cholesterol levels in the body. However, their use is limited due to the many side effects that they can cause. These medications are generally unpleasant to take and patients often do not tolerate them well. They are suitable for use in patients who are intolerant to statins or who have had serious adverse effects from statins. They can also be used in combination with statins in patients with markedly elevated LDL cholesterol levels.

      The main side effects of bile acid sequestrants include gallstones, constipation, bloating, reflux disease, abdominal discomfort, reduced absorption of lipids leading to greasy unpleasant stools, reduced absorption of certain vitamins including vitamin D and folate, and reduced absorption of certain drugs, including warfarin and digoxin. These side effects can limit the use of bile acid sequestrants in many patients. Therefore, it is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications before prescribing them to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following conditions is not associated with obesity in adolescents?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following conditions is not associated with obesity in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone excess

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obesity in Children

      Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment and management. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is more challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To accurately assess BMI, percentile charts are needed. According to recent guidelines by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the UK 1990 BMI charts should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.

      NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other factors such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome can also contribute to obesity in children.

      Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis and Blount’s disease, musculoskeletal pains, psychological consequences like poor self-esteem and bullying, sleep apnoea, and benign intracranial hypertension. Moreover, obesity in childhood can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease in the long run. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and manage obesity in children to prevent these adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer: The first heart sound occurs at the same time as the P wave

      Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing

      As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump has been present for about 3 days and is gradually increasing in size. Upon examination, a tender, smooth lump measuring approximately 3 mm in diameter is observed, originating from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. There is no redness in the eye, no orbital or periorbital erythema, and normal visual acuity.

      What would be the most suitable approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 10-day course of oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Stye or Hordeolum: Hot Compresses and Simple Analgesia

      A stye or hordeolum is a common condition that presents as an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid, usually around a single eyelash follicle. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can make the eye watery. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. Incision and drainage is rarely used and should only be considered if symptoms do not resolve and needs to be performed by an experienced individual in the hospital setting/Eye Casualty. There is no indication to prescribe systemic antibiotics, as the patient is well and there are no signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sharp, left lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sharp, left lower abdominal pain, which has been intermittently present for several days. It does not radiate anywhere. It is not associated with any gastrointestinal upset. Her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. She is sexually active although admits to not using contraception all the time. Her past medical history includes multiple chlamydial infections. On examination, the abdomen is tender. An internal examination is also performed; adnexal tenderness is demonstrated. A urine pregnancy test is positive.
      What investigation is recommended as the first choice for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate investigation for a suspected ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest an ectopic pregnancy, making transvaginal ultrasound the investigation of choice. Transabdominal ultrasound is less sensitive and therefore not ideal. NAAT, which is used to detect chlamydia, is not relevant in this case as the patient’s history suggests a higher likelihood of ectopic pregnancy rather than infection. Laparoscopy, which is used to diagnose endometriosis, is not indicated based on the clinical presentation.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 23-year-old woman student presents to her general practitioner (GP) with menstrual irregularity....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman student presents to her general practitioner (GP) with menstrual irregularity. Her last menstrual period was 5 months ago. On examination, the GP notes an increased body mass index (BMI) and coarse dark hair over her stomach. There are no other relevant findings. The GP makes a referral to a gynaecologist.
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's menstrual irregularity?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Amenorrhea and Hirsutism in Women

      Amenorrhea, the absence of menstrual periods, and hirsutism, excessive hair growth, are symptoms that can be caused by various conditions. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of anovulatory infertility and is diagnosed by the presence of two out of three criteria: ultrasound appearance of enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts, infrequent ovulation or anovulation, and clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism. Turner syndrome, characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and absence of periods, is a genetic disorder that would not cause primary amenorrhea. Hyperprolactinemia, a syndrome of high prolactin levels, can cause cessation of ovulation and lactation but not an increase in BMI or hair growth. Premature ovarian failure has symptoms similar to menopause, such as flushing and vaginal dryness. Virilizing ovarian tumor can also cause amenorrhea and hirsutism, but PCOS is more likely and should be ruled out first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/5) 40%
Orthopaedics (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (2/3) 67%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Cardiothoracic (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/3) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
General Practice (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Passmed